Module 10 Aviation Legislation100 important sentences (EASA Part-66 Module 10)

 ✈️ 100 Important Sentences – Aviation Legislation

1. EASA ensures safety in European civil aviation operations.

2. ICAO sets international standards for air safety.

3. Part-66 defines aircraft maintenance engineer licensing.

4. Part-145 governs approved aircraft maintenance organizations.

5. Part-M ensures continuing airworthiness of aircraft.

6. Part-21 covers design and production approvals.

7. Aircraft must have a valid airworthiness certificate.

8. Pilots require licences under ICAO Annex One.

9. Annex Eight relates to aircraft airworthiness certification.

10. EASA replaced JAA as European aviation authority.

11. The FAA regulates aviation safety within America.

12. ICAO headquarters are located in Montreal, Canada.

13. Every aircraft must display a registration mark.

14. Certificate of Airworthiness proves aircraft is airworthy.

15. Maintenance release certifies safe aircraft after maintenance.

16. Airworthiness Review Certificate remains valid for one year.

17. Operator ensures aircraft’s continuing airworthiness and safety.

18. Type Certificate issued for specific aircraft models.

19. Airworthiness Directives ensure mandatory safety compliance worldwide.

20. Maintenance Organization Exposition describes approved procedures clearly.

21. EASA Form 1 certifies release to service.

22. CAMO manages aircraft’s continuing airworthiness requirements daily.

23. Operator is responsible for safe flight operations.

24. Aircraft logbooks record maintenance and operational history.

25. Maintenance records must be retained for inspection purposes.

26. Each maintenance organization needs competent certifying staff.

27. Human factors training is mandatory under Part-145.

28. Quality system ensures maintenance organization’s regulatory compliance.

29. Safety management system reduces operational safety risks.

30. Approved data must be used for maintenance.

31. Part-66 licence categories define maintenance privileges precisely.

32. Category B1 engineers handle mechanical aircraft systems.

33. Category B2 engineers maintain avionic aircraft systems.

34. Category C certifies base maintenance release authority.

35. Part-147 covers training organization approval and standards.

36. Training organizations must follow approved EASA syllabi.

37. Examination questions must meet required knowledge levels.

38. Certificates of recognition issued after approved training.

39. Licence validity depends on competence and currency.

40. Civil Aviation Authority issues licences and approvals.

41. Aircraft maintenance must meet manufacturer’s approved data.

42. Unserviceable components must be clearly identified immediately.

43. All defects must be rectified before release.

44. Technical log records aircraft flight and maintenance details.

45. Maintenance intervals defined by approved maintenance program.

46. Certificate of Release to Service authorizes aircraft operation.

47. Non-certifying staff work under certifying staff supervision.

48. Maintenance planning ensures compliance with required schedules.

49. Air operator’s certificate required for commercial operations.

50. Continuing airworthiness ensures safe aircraft operational life.

51. EASA regulates civil aviation across European countries.

52. Competent authority audits approved organizations for compliance.

53. Licence holder must maintain recent maintenance experience.

54. Safety oversight prevents aviation system rule violations.

55. National aviation authorities cooperate under EASA framework.

56. Part-145 approval valid only within EASA states.

57. Organizations outside Europe require EASA foreign approval.

58. Part-21 governs design, production, and airworthiness certification.

59. Design organizations issue minor change approvals independently.

60. Production organizations issue authorized release certificates accordingly.

61. Airworthiness directives correct unsafe aircraft conditions promptly.

62. Mandatory inspections prevent recurrence of safety issues.

63. Aircraft type design ensures performance and structural safety.

64. Environmental certification includes aircraft noise and emissions.

65. Aircraft registration identifies nationality and ownership legally.

66. Registered owner responsible for aircraft airworthiness status.

67. Aircraft documents must be kept on board.

68. Certificate of registration proves aircraft legal ownership.

69. Certificate of insurance required for aircraft operation.

70. Flight manual provides operational limitations and procedures.

71. Maintenance data includes drawings, manuals, and bulletins.

72. Service bulletins issued by manufacturer for improvements.

73. Operators may adopt manufacturer’s recommended maintenance programs.

74. Maintenance tasks categorized as line or base maintenance.

75. Line maintenance includes daily and transit checks.

76. Base maintenance involves detailed structural aircraft inspection.

77. Independent inspection required after critical maintenance tasks.

78. Competence assessments ensure engineers perform tasks correctly.

79. Human error minimized through proper training procedures.

80. Fatigue management critical for maintenance staff performance.

81. Safety culture promotes reporting of maintenance errors.

82. Part-M Subpart G defines CAMO requirements clearly.

83. Subpart I of Part-M covers Airworthiness Review.

84. ARC may be extended by approved organizations.

85. Aircraft without ARC cannot be legally operated.

86. Technical records provide history of aircraft maintenance actions.

87. Data accuracy vital for regulatory and operational safety.

88. Maintenance schedule deviations require authority’s prior approval.

89. Pilot reports may identify aircraft technical discrepancies.

90. Deferred defects must be controlled and rectified.

91. Airworthiness Review staff require appropriate authorization levels.

92. Non-EASA aircraft must meet equivalent safety standards.

93. Maintenance tools must be calibrated and controlled properly.

94. Safety equipment must meet certified operational requirements.

95. Personnel must understand relevant national aviation regulations.

96. Quality audits evaluate compliance with approved procedures.

97. Part-66 exams test knowledge of aviation legislation.

98. Engineering ethics promote integrity and professional responsibility.

99. Record falsification results in severe legal penalties.

100. Continuous learning ensures competence in aviation legislation.

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M-12 Final Practice Test-2 ( Helicopter Aerodynamic 116 Questions 145 Mints)

Module - 12 (Helicopter Aerodynamic)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. Lift generated by a blade is proportional to the?
   1.   blade speed and angle of attack
   2.   relative airflow and the pitch
   3.   relative airflow and the angle of attack
2. Phase lag is due to the blades ?
   1.   weight
   2.   rotational velocity
   3.   inertia
3. A helicopter hovering near a tall building will ?
   1.   drift towards it
   2.   be unaffected by it
   3.   drift away from it
4. When the cyclic stick is eased forward in the hover position ?
   1.   altitude is increased
   2.   vertical lift is reduced
   3.   forward thrust is decreased
5. Static stability of a helicopter is ?
   1.   the stability of the helicopter when
      hovering
   2.   the tendency to oscillate until the neutral is achieved
   3.   the tendency move back toward neutral after disturbance
6. During forward flight the advancing blade will?
   1.   lag
   2.   flap down
   3.   flap up
7. What principle does the delta 3 hinge use?
   1.   Triangular pitch change lever
   2.   Offset hinges
   3.   Flapping actuators
8. Solidity of the rotor is the ratio of the ?
   1.   all up weight to disc area
   2.   all up weight to blade area
   3.   blade area to disc area
9. What is a controlling factor of turbulence and skin friction?
   1.   Countersunk rivets used on skin exterior
   2.   Fineness ratio
   3.   Aspect ratio
10. Helicopters in forward flight are usually ?
    1.   longitudinally stable
    2.   laterally stable
    3.   directionally stable
11. The tropopause exists at about ?
    1.   36,000 ft
    2.   18,000 ft
    3.   30,000 ft
12. The HUMS receives signals from ?
    
    1.   transponders
    2.   transformers
    3.   transducers
13. What causes lateral vibration ?
    
    1.   Tail drive shaft misalignment
    2.   Main rotor head
    3.   Loose load/vibration absorber
14. A series actuator in a helicopter autopilot system has ?
    1.   50% authority
    2.   10% authority
    3.   full authority
15. The tail rotor is subject to ?
    
    1.   positive torque
    2.   negative torque
    3.   both positive and negative torque
16. What is the difference between transient and static droop ?
    
    1.   Centrifugal latches
    2.   Over-swing
    3.   Under-swing
17. The ability of the blade to move up and down is ?
    1.   feathering
    2.   flapping
    3.   dragging
18. When raising the collective lever ?
    
    1.   the pitch is increased on all blades
    2.   the angle of attack is decreased on the retreating blade
    3.   the pitch is decreased on all blades
19. The throttle hand grip is located on the ?
    
    1.   throttle box
    2.   cyclic stick
    3.   collective lever
20. Pitch trimming in autopilot is initiated by ?
    
    1.   continued pitch input
    2.   pitch of aircraft in cruise
    3.   C of G movement
21. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with ?
    
    1.   Oxygen
    2.   Helium
    3.   CO2
22. Where the aircraft passenger seating capacity exceeds 149 but less than 200 then ?
    
    1.   1 megaphone is required
    2.   2 megaphones are required
    3.   3 megaphones are required
23. The minimum vertical projected separation between seat rows is ?
    
    1.   7 inches
    2.   5 inches
    3.   3 inches
24. Engine wing fire bottles should be charged with nitrogen at 15 °C to ?
    
    1.   1250 psi
    2.   600 psi
    3.   1500 psi
25. A fire that can be put out by a crew member in a cargo bay is in a ?
    
    1.   class D compensation
    2.   class C compensation
    3.   class B compensation
26. A Systron-Donner fire detection system uses ?
    1.   helium gas
    2.   oxygen gas
    3.   nitrogen gas
27. The weight of an extinguisher is stamped ?
    1.   on bracket
    2.   on head fitting
    3.   on base of body
28. A fuel cross-feed valve is lubricated ?
    1.   by the fuel
    2.   by air
    3.   by internal cooling
29. Bladder type fuel tanks are secured by ?
    1.   bolts
    2.   contact adhesive
    3.   press type rivets
30. A constant delivery pump has its output varied with ?
    1.   gears
    2.   regulators
    3.   servo pressure
31. Prior to aluminium alloy bonding, we use ?
    
    1.   solvent etch
    2.   alkaline etch
    3.   acid etch
32. A radome is protected from static electricity build-up by ?
    1.   bonding strips
    2.   special conductive grease
    3.   conductive paint
33. What is the ideal storage temperature for windscreen panels?
    1.   50 °F to 70 °F
    2.   50 °C to 70 °C
    3.   30 °C to 50 °C
34. Which anti-corrosive treatment is found on alloy steels ?
    1.   Zinc plating
    2.   Cadmium plating
    3.   Nickel plating
35. Which of the following is an example of a failsafe structure ?
    1.   Spar
    2.   Longeron
    3.   Stringer
36. A material commonly used for bulkhead sealing is ?
    1.   PTFE
    2.   soft rubber
    3.   aluminium
37. The helicopter's normal axis is ?
    1.   through the centre of gravity, perpendicular to longitudinal and lateral axis
    2.   through the centre of gravity, between
       the main and tail rotor
    3.   hrough the centre of lift, perpendicular
       to air flow
38. The main forces on an helicopter structure are ?
    1.   tension, compression, twisting and shear
    2.   tension, compression, torsion and strain
    3.   tension, compression, torsion and shear
39. What governs the ultimate fatigue life of an helicopter ?
    1.   Pressure Cycles
    2.   Flying Hours
    3.   Landings
40. A partition within the helicopter's structure is called a ?
    1.   bulkhead
    2.   cleat
    3.   frame
41. A member taking a compression load is called a ?
    1.   strut
    2.   cable
    3.   beam
42. If a colour is used to identify primary structure, it will be ?
    1.   green
    2.   yellow
    3.   red
43. Perspex is resistant to ?
    1.   Acetone
    2.   Paraffin
    3.   C.T.C
44. If an helicopter has alkaline batteries, the battery compartment drain pipes will be ?
    1.   aluminium alloy
    2.   plastic
    3.   stainless steel
45. Helicopter frames are constructed of ?
    1.   'U' section
    2.   'Z' section
    3.   'I' section
46. Buckling in a semi-monocoque structure is prevented by ?
    1.   bulkheads
    2.   longerons
    3.   stringers
47. A Fenestron tail rotor ?
    1.   has four blades
    2.   is a shrouded rotor
    3.   is a variable speed rotor
48. How much air is required for the Flight Deck ?
    1.   10 cubic feet/minute
    2.   10 lbs/minute
    3.   Whatever the captain sets
49. In a Bleed Air air-conditioning system, the warm air supply is provided by ?
    1.   the engine exhaust heat
    2.   the compressor of the gas turbine
       engine
    3.   the gas turbine exhaust
50. A water separator is located ?
    1.   upstream of the turbine
    2.   downstream of heat exchanger
    3.   downstream of turbine
51. Which of these barometric instruments uses a restrictor to compute its output ?
    1.   VSI
    2.   Machmeter
    3.   ASI
52. Track altitude in a radio altimeter system begins at ?
    1.   10000 ft radio alt
    2.   2500 ft radio alt
    3.   1000 ft radio alt
53. The runway heading is ?
    1.   QDR
    2.   QDM
    3.   QFU
54. The vacuum system gauge reads 5 inches of mercury, This is from ?
    1.   ambient and minus
    2.   zero and positive
    3.   zero and minus
55. For A helicopter certificated after 1997 and with RVSM, the maximum tolerance for the system would be ?
    1.   +/-500 feet for the system overall
    2.   +/-300 feet plus +/-50 feet for
       instrument errors
    3.   +/-200 feet plus +/-50 feet for instrument error
56. The HSI provides information on ?
    1.   VOR, ILS, plan, attitude
    2.   VOR, ILS, map, radar, attitude
    3.   VOR, plan, map, ILS, radar
57. When aligning an helicopter for a compass swing, the maximum allowable error is ?
    1.   1 degrees
    2.   5 degrees
    3.   3 degrees
58. Which pitot probe provides information to the captains instruments ?
    1.   Upper
    2.   Lower
    3.   Both
59. Which instrument shows Decision Height ?
    1.   ECAM
    2.   HIS
    3.   ADI
60. Compared to air driven gyros, the electric gyro runs. ?
    1.   faster
    2.   slower
    3.   same speed
61. The needle of a resolver is connected to?
    1.   two coils and a permanent magnet
    2.   two coils and an electromagnet
    3.   two coils only
62. Gyro rigidity is proportional to ?
    1.   mass, speed and radius of mass from
       spin axis
    2.   mass, and radius of mass from spin axis
    3.   mass and speed
63. A V.S.I. is connected to ?
    1.   vacuum
    2.   pitot pressure
    3.   static pressure
64. The millibar is a unit of ?
    1.   barometric pressure
    2.   pressure altitude
    3.   atmospheric temperature
65. A temperature of 59 °F is equivalent to ?
    1.   32 °C
    2.   14.69 °C
    3.   15 °C
66. Limit stops are fitted in an artificial horizon to ?
    1.   reduce gimbal nutation
    2.   prevent gimbal lock
    3.   limit the outer gimbal movement
67. Isogonal lines link places of ?
    1.   zero variation
    2.   equal variation
    3.   different variation
68. If True Airspeed is 470 knots, what is the Equivalent Air speed?
    1.   278 knots
    2.   550 knots
    3.   662 knots
69. If an altimeter millibar scale was set to 1 0 1 3.2 5 and the barometric pressure at that time was 1020, the altimeter should read?
    1.   positive altitude
    2.   zero feet
    3.   below zero feet (negative altitude)
70. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery ?
    1.   copper connectors are used
    2.   petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
    3.   the connectors may be painted
71. Pressure may be expressed in ?
    1.   weight or mass
    2.   force per unit volume
    3.   force per unit area
72. One dot VOR deviation represents ?
    1.   2 miles
    2.   5 °
    3.   1 1/4 °
73. The fluid suitable for use in a Dead Weight Tester is?
    1.   castor-oil
    2.   kerosene
    3.   anti-freeze oil
74. The capsule in an altimeter responds to ?
    1.   differential pressure
    2.   absolute pressure
    3.   gauge pressure
75. How many axis does the helicopter autopilot control?
    1.   Three
    2.   Four
    3.   Two
76. Emergency frequency is ?
    1.   125.5 Hz
    2.   123.5 Hz
    3.   121.5 Hz
77. A radar altimeter in track mode is effective to ?
    1.   2000 ft
    2.   2500 ft
    3.   1000 ft
78. How do you clean seat belts ?
    1.   With MEK
    2.   With white spirit
    3.   With warm water with low alkalinity soap
79. A 'hyperbolic' system is ?
    1.   LORAN C
    2.   VOR
    3.   ILS
80. What is the reply frequency of an aircraft transponder ?
    1.   1090 MHz
    2.   1000 MHz
    3.   1030 MHz
81. What does the differential sensing coil sense ?
    1.   Power
    2.   Current
    3.   Volts
82. Where does the GCU gets its power?
    1.   Battery
    2.   RAT
    3.   PMG
83. Excessive commutator sparking can be caused by ?
    1.   brushes positioned on MNA
    2.   rotating field diode failure
    3.   weak spring tension
84. The ground interlock pins are numbered ?
    1.   A and B
    2.   C and N
    3.   E and F
85. Diodes are placed across a contactor to ?
    1.   prevent contact bounce
    2.   speed up operation by reducing back
       EMF
    3.   ensure smooth contactor operation
86. Oxygen purging is a process of ?
    1.   pressure testing the system
    2.   measuring the flow rate from the regulator
    3.   removing moisture from the system
87. On testing a generator it is found to require adjusting, where would you adjust it ?
    1.   By means of a remote trimmer
    2.   By means of a remote trimmer
    3.   On the GCU
88. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is?
    1.   to allow monitoring and trimming from
       the flight deck
    2.   to enable two propeller systems to be
       synchronised
    3.   to monitor total current load
89. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA ?
    1.   Chapter 24 Section 31
    2.   Chapter 24 Section 21
    3.   Chapter 31 Section 21
90. Zener diodes are for ?
    1.   voltage stabilisation
    2.   voltage regulation
    3.   rectification
91. In a generator system, a stability winding is used ?
    1.   to prevent voltage overshoot
    2.   in series with the field to prevent
       oscillations
    3.   to control output current
92. Specific Gravity in a lead acid battery should give an indication of ?
    1.   electrolyte temperature
    2.   electrolyte level
    3.   charge
93. A neutralising agent for sulphuric acid is ?
    1.   citric acid
    2.   borax powder
    3.   sodium bicarbonate
94. What is the purpose of the diode on a contactor ?
    1.   Prevent bounce
    2.   Prevent spikes
    3.   To prevent current going the wrong way
95. A P.M.G (Permanent Magnet Generator) is a small built in generator which ?
    1.   provides initial excitation
    2.   only rotates during starting
    3.   only rotates after starting
96. ILS marker beacon lights are ?
    1.   green, blue, amber
    2.   blue, white, green
    3.   blue, amber, white
97. A GPS satellite will come into view ?
    1.   10 ° above the horizon with respect to
       the viewer
    2.   20 ° above the horizon with respect to
       the viewer
    3.   15 ° above the horizon with respect to
       the viewer
98. CAT 2 RVR limit is ?
    1.   200 meters
    2.   400 meters
    3.   800 meters
99. What is primary radar ?
    1.   Radar that sends out pulse and receives reflected pulse
    2.   Radar that gives height and position
    3.   Land based
100. The components of an ILS are ?
     1.   a localizer and the marker beacons
     2.   a localizer, a glide slope and the marker beacons
     3.   a localizer and a glide slope
101. What channel of the autopilot does the glide slope control ?
     1.   Pitch
     2.   Roll
     3.   Yaw
102. The VOR system comprises ?
     1.   reference phase signal
     2.   variable phase signal
     3.   variable and reference phase signals
103. When an helicopter is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be ?
     1.   180 ° out of phase
     2.   270 ° out of phase
     3.   150 ° out of phase
104. The Inertial Navigation System computes distance from acceleration by ?
     1.   a single integration
     2.   a differential followed by an integration
     3.   two successive integrations
105. The GPS satellite system consists of ?
     1.   20 satellites and 5 standby satellite
     2.   21 satellites and 3 standby satellites
     3.   24 satellites and 1 standby satellites
106. Windshield heating provides ?
     1.   thermal expansion for a tighter fit
     2.   impact resistance enhancement
     3.   increases strength to resist cabin
        pressure
107. The decision height light will illuminate when ?
     1.   the aircraft's indicated altitude is above decision height
     2.   the decision height is selected
     3.   the aircraft's indicated altitude is below decision height
108. On a flight management system, the database is updated every ?
     1.   2 Months
     2.   1 Months
     3.   3 Months
109. Upper and lower strobe lights are coloured ?
     1.   red
     2.   green
     3.   white
110. What is the arc of a landing light is ?
     1.   15 °
     2.   11 °
     3.   20 °
111. Tyre creep could be caused by ?
     1.   excessive wear
     2.   over pressure
     3.   under pressure
112. Ribbed tyres with marker tie bars may be worn to ?
     1.   the top of the tie bar
     2.   the base of the tie bar
     3.   1 mm from the rib base
113. When checking for alignment of a MLG, check ?
     1.   symmetry, twist, tracking
     2.   symmetry, splay, tracking
     3.   symmetry, tracking, camber
114. The purpose of the flutter plate in a shock absorber is to ?
     1.   separate the oil from the air
     2.   restrict the compression of the air
     3.   permit free flow of oil during compression and restriction of oil during extension
115. Air for anti-icing of the wings is obtained from ?
     1.   air conditioning ducting
     2.   engine compressors
     3.   a combustion heater
116. Rotor disc attitude is altered by ?
     1.   swash plate & spider assembly
     2.   ball & screw system
     3.   rotating block

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