M6 Materials Hardware Quiz: 10 Randomly Generated Questions from a (70-Question Bank)

 

 

Module - 06 (Materials & Hardware)

Quiz

 

1. What temperature would steel be tempered at?
   1.   At the annealing temperature
   2.   Above the annealing temperature
   3.   Below the annealing temperature
2. At normal temperatures HC steel is harder because?
   1.   it has more austenite
   2.   of the % of carbon in the granules
   3.   it has less austenite
3. Nitriding is ?
   1.   case hardening
   2.   anodising
   3.   tempering
4. The annealing process on steel is required sometimes as it ?
   1.   provides a corrosion resistant layer that prevents oxidation
   2.   relieves internal stress suffered after engineering processes
   3.   allows the material a greater stress per unit area
5. The properties of pearlitic metal are that it is both ?
   1.   strong but too and hard and brittle
   2.   soft and weak
   3.   strong without being brittle
6. The socket section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on ?
   1.   either side of a circuit (makes no difference)
   2.   the ground side of the circuit
   3.   the power supply side of the circuit
7. When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured along its entire length ?
   1.   at 1-foot intervals
   2.   at 2-foot intervals
   3.   wherever the cable sags
8. When buffing surface of Aluminium Alloy, what material are you removing?
   1.   Oxide layer
   2.   Aluminium
   3.   Alloy
9. Why are aluminium alloys used on aircraft, instead of pure aluminium?
   1.   Lighter
   2.   Corrosion resistant
   3.   Stronger
10. The process of forming a pure layer of aluminium over an aluminium alloy is ?
    1.   cladding
    2.   electroplating
    3.   metalizing
11. Cast iron is ?
    1.   very malleable
    2.   tough
    3.   heavy and brittle
12. What is a Rockwell tester used for ?
    
    
    1.   Tensile Testing
    2.   Hardness Testing
    3.   Fatigue Testing
13. The symbol 'W' on a material indicates ?
    1.   it is for use on aircraft mainplanes only
    2.   it has been solution treated and will respond effectively to precipitation treatment
    3.   it is for workshop use only
14. Composition of silver solder is ?
    1.   tin, lead, silver and antimony
    2.   tin, lead and silver
    3.   tin and lead
15. Precipitation treating makes the metal ?
    
    1.   Precipitation treating makes the metal
    2.   less strong and hard
    3.   harder, stronger and less ductile
16. The time between removal from heat treatment furnace and quenching must be not more than ?
    1.   05 seconds
    2.   10 seconds
    3.   15 seconds
17. The metal which must not be heated in a salt bath is?
    
    1.   magnesium alloy
    2.   duralumin
    3.   rivets made of alclad
18. A material containing approximately 66% nickel and 33% copper is known as ?
    1.   Nimonic
    2.   Invar
    3.   Monel metal
19. Hooke's law states that, within the elastic region, elastic strain is?
    
    1.   directly proportional to stress
    2.   directly opposite to stress
    3.   indirectly proportional to stress
20. What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks ?
    
    1.   Fatigue Testing
    2.   Hardness Testing
    3.   Tensile Testing
21. Two parts of the adhesive process are?
    
    1.   wetting and gripping
    2.   wetting and setting
    3.   spreading and setting
22. Polyester resin and glass fibre cloth, becomes ?
    
    1.   PTFE
    2.   PVC
    3.   GRP
23. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a ?
    
    1.   thermoset
    2.   thermoplastic
    3.   thermocure
24. The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft structures is ?
    
    1.   G-glass
    2.   E-glass
    3.   S-glass
25. Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fibre (Kevlar) composites ?
    1.   High tensile strength, stiffness and ability to conduct electricity
    2.   Flexibility, stiffness and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium
    3.   High tensile strength and flexibility
26. What tests are done on adhesive joints ?
    1.   Impact and peel
    2.   Shear and peel
    3.   Impact and shear
27. If you increase the amount of catalyst in a resin mixture ?
    1.   the pot life will be decreased
    2.   the material will become weaker
    3.   the material will become stronger
28. What is the largest hole in honeycomb repairable with microballoons ?
    1.   2.54 inches
    2.   2.54 mm
    3.   2.54 cm
29. What does MSDS stand for ?
    1.   Metal Surface Dimension Sector
    2.   Material Safety Data Sheet
    3.   Maximum Structural Design System
30. With what would you check the bonded joints of a wooden aircraft structure ?
    
    1.   A screwdriver
    2.   A plastic strip
    3.   A feeler gauge
31. Replacement of a wooden spar is ?
    1.   only permitted by the manufacturer
    2.   a minor repair
    3.   a major repair
32. A surface patch to a plywood structure may be a large as ?
    1.   50 inch perimeter
    2.   50 inch diameter
    3.   50 sq.inch area
33. The standard wood type for aircraft wood structures is ?
    1.   douglas fir
    2.   spruce
    3.   pine
34. Red heart and purple heart ?
    1.   are harmless natural defects in wood
    2.   are types of hard-wood
    3.   are forms of decay in wood
35. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates ?
    1.   shear failure
    2.   compression failure
    3.   decay
36. Lacing cord used on aircraft fabric covering must have a minimum breaking strength of ?
    1.   40 lb
    2.   80 lb
    3.   120 lb
37. Aircraft fabric lacing cord is reinforced with ?
    1.   lanolin
    2.   epoxy
    3.   wax
38. Which of the following is true regarding aircraft dope type ?
    1.   Either type of dope may be applied over the top of any type of dope
    2.   Butyrate dope may be applied over the top of nitrate dope
    3.   Nitrate dope may be applied over the top of butyrate dope
39. A retarder is added to aircraft dope to ?
    1.   produce a smoother finish
    2.   to retard the application time
    3.   to extend the shelf life
40. What width of finishing tape should be used on a tear in a fabric cover which is 10 inches long ?
    1.   4 inches
    2.   6 inches
    3.   2 inches
41. The threads per inch of Grade 'A' aircraft fabric is ?
    1.   60-64
    2.   110-115
    3.   80-84
42. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of ?
    1.   excessive anodization
    2.   contact between two unlike metals
    3.   the wrong quenching agent
43. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as ?
    1.   sub-surface corrosion
    2.   filiform corrosion
    3.   layer corrosion
44. Which is the following correct statement ?
    1.   Selenious acid is used for the re-protection of aluminium alloys
    2.   The chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate
    3.   All corrosion is a chemical action
45. Corrosion control begins at the ?
    1.   production stage
    2.   manufacturing stage
    3.   design stage
46. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of ?
    1.   excessive anodization
    2.   contact between two unlike metals
    3.   excessive etching
47. What are the signs of fretting corrosion ?
    1.   Black powder or cocoa staining
    2.   Intergranular cracking
    3.   Flaking
48. Magnesium alloy components are protected by ?
    1.   an electro process
    2.   a chemical process
    3.   a painted process
49. Corrosion at the grain boundaries is called ?
    1.   filiform
    2.   fretting
    3.   intergrannular
50. Anti-corrosion treatment used on Magnesium is ?
    1.   chromating
    2.   electro-plating
    3.   phosphating
51. The pitch of a screw thread is ?
    1.   2 * crest to root
    2.   crest to root
    3.   crest to crest
52. A metric screw thread angle is ?
    1.   37 °
    2.   57 °
    3.   60 °
53. What sort of surface treatment would you find on a magnesium casting ?
    1.   Chromating
    2.   Phosphating
    3.   Anodizing
54. Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called ?
    1.   plain studs
    2.   shouldered studs
    3.   stepped studs
55. A dowel will take what loads ?
    1.   torsion
    2.   tensile
    3.   shear
56. UNF means ?
    1.   union national fine
    2.   unified fine
    3.   united nations fine
57. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a ?
    1.   class 3 fit for the threads
    2.   by itself
    3.   with a plain washer
58. A spring type washer when used on an aluminium component must be used ?
    1.   with a tab washer
    2.   by itself
    3.   with a plain washer
59. Taper pins are subject to what loads ?
    1.   Shear
    2.   Compressive
    3.   Tensile
60. How is a British aluminium rivet identified ?
    1.   Violet anodic finish
    2.   Natural anodised finish
    3.   Black anodic finish
61. An aluminium alloy L37 rivet identification is ?
    1.   D embossed
    2.   O embossed
    3.   X embossed
62. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of ?
    1.   1/4 inch
    2.   1/8 inch
    3.   1/16 inch
63. Countersunk rivets have two angles of countersink, these are ?
    1.   100 - 115 degrees
    2.   125 - 135 degrees
    3.   100 -160 degrees
64. A 'HUCK' rivet is similar in design to a ?
    1.   dome head rivet
    2.   blind rivet
    3.   cherry rivet
65. What type loads cause the most rivet failures ?
    1.   Bearing
    2.   Head
    3.   Shear
66. How are flexible hoses categorised ?
    1.   By diameter
    2.   By maximum pressure
    3.   By length
67. How would you test a hydraulic hose ?
    1.   Pressure test 1.5 * working pressure
    2.   Pressure test 2.0 * working pressure
    3.   Pressure test 1.0 * working pressure
68. Which material is a hydraulic fluid hose made from ?
    1.   Rubber
    2.   Butyl
    3.   Teflon
69. A 0.5 in. diameter pipe is to be joined using standard nuts and fittings. What coupling would you use ?
    1.   AN8-8852-2
    2.   AN8-8852-8
    3.   AN8-8852-1
70. A self aligning bearing is a ?
    1.   angular bearing
    2.   precision bearing
    3.   radial bearing
71. What type of gear would be used on a propeller reduction gearbox ?
    1.   Bevel
    2.   Epicyclic
    3.   Split epicyclic

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M3 Electrical Quiz – 10 Random Questions Each Attempt (From 55 Total Questions)

 

Module - 3 Electrical

Quiz

 

1. The rotating part of a motor/generator is called?
   1.   commutator
   2.   armature
   3.   yoke
2. What is the purpose of the capacitor used in a single phase AC motor ?
   1.   Changing direction of motor
   2.   Provides a high starting torque
   3.   Smoothing Troque
3. The controlling phase on a two phase motor is of a ?
   1.   variable amplitude
   2.   fixed amplitude
   3.   direct current
4. In a two-phase induction motor there are ?
   1.   2 poles
   2.   4 poles
   3.   3 poles
5. In a synchronous motor, when the motor is running the slip is ?
   1.   100%
   2.   5%
   3.   0%
6. A capacitor in a single phase motor is to ?
   1.   prevent sparking at the switch
   2.   provide smoothing
   3.   provide a phase shift
7. Calculate the speed of a 400 Hz, 4 pole machine ?
   1.   6000 rpm
   2.   12,000 rpm
   3.   8000 rpm
8. A three-phase motor has the windings ?
   1.   90° apart
   2.   180°apart
   3.   120° apart
9. In an aircraft brushless alternator the armature is ?
   1.   star wound
   2.   delta wound
   3.   in series with the field
10. In a 2 phase generator, what angle are the phases to each other ?
    1.   0°
    2.   180°
    3.   90°
11. The SI unit of capacitance is ?
    1.   Farad
    2.   Volt
    3.   Ohm
12. Germanium and silicon have how many electrons in their outer shell?
    
    1.   8
    2.   6
    3.   4
13. A semi-conductor will have?
    
    1.   two electrons in the outer shell
    2.   four electrons in the outer shell
    3.   eight electrons in the outer shell
14. The symbol “Ω” represents ?
    1.   Watt
    2.   Ohm
    3.   Volt
15. An ammeter is always connected in?
    1.   Series
    2.   Parallel
    3.   Neither
16. A voltmeter is always connected in?
    1.   Series
    2.   Barometer
    3.   Both
17. Ohm’s law states that ?
    1.   R = V + I
    2.   V = I × R
    3.   I = R × V
18. Which of the following is 1 Amp?
    
    1.   1000 mA
    2.   1000 kA
    3.   1000 μA
19. The S.I. unit of magnetic flux density is the?
    
    1.   Henry
    2.   Weber
    3.   Tesla
20. The property of a material to accept lines of flux is called?
    
    1.   retentivity
    2.   reluctance
    3.   permeability
21. What is the SI unit of conductance?
    
    1.   Ohm-metre
    2.   Ohm
    3.   Siemen
22. What is the SI unit of resistivity ?
    
    1.   Ohms
    2.   Ohms/metre
    3.   Ohm metre
23. A thermocouple indicator is basically a type of ?
    1.   millivoltmeter
    2.   milliammeter
    3.   milliohmeter
24. A battery rated at 40 Ah will supply 200 mA for ?
    1.   20 hours
    2.   200 hours
    3.   5 hours
25. Two 12V 40 amp hour batteries connected in parallel will produce ?
    1.   12V 80 ah
    2.   24V 80 ah
    3.   24V 40 ah
26. In a mercury cell the steel casing is ?
    1.   The negative terminal
    2.   the positive terminal
    3.   Neither
27. The electrolyte in a nicad battery is ?
    1.   Cadmium hydroxide
    2.   Nickel hydroxide
    3.   Potassium hydroxide
28. A galvanometer measures ?
    1.   megohms
    2.   milliamps
    3.   millivolts
29. If voltage is 100V, resistance is 25 ohms, what is the current ?
    1.   2500 amperes
    2.   0.4 amperes
    3.   4 amperes
30. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, across the centre of the bridge there is?
    1.   Current and voltage at maximum
    2.   No current flow
    3.   No voltage present at either end
31. Total resistance in a parallel resistor circuit, of R1 and R2 is ?
    1.   1/RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2
    2.   1/RT = (R1 * R2) ÷ (R1 + R2)
    3.   RT = 1/R1 + 1/R2
32. A 47 kilohm resistor has the following colour code ?
    1.   Orange, Violet, Red
    2.   Red, Orange, Yellow
    3.   Yellow, Violet, Orange
33. The phase difference between current and voltage in a pure inductive circuit is ?
    1.   0°
    2.   90°
    3.   180°
34. The reactance of a capacitor decreases when ?
    1.   Frequency increases
    2.   Frequency decreases
    3.   Capacitance decreases
35. When a conductor moves through a magnetic field, an EMF is induced due to ?
    1.   Electromagnetic induction
    2.   Mutual induction
    3.   Electrostatic induction
36. Lenz’s law states that ?
    1.   Induced current flows only in one direction
    2.   Induced EMF aids the cause producing it
    3.   Induced EMF opposes the cause producing it
37. In a transformer, eddy current losses can be reduced by ?
    1.   Increasing core size
    2.   Using laminated core
    3.   Using solid iron core
38. The primary purpose of a rectifier is to ?
    1.   Step up voltage
    2.   Convert DC to AC
    3.   Convert AC to DC
39. Kirchhoff’s voltage law states that ?
    1.   Total current entering equals current leaving
    2.   Total voltage around a loop equals zero
    3.   Power is equal to VI
40. The instrument used to measure insulation resistance is?
    1.   Voltmeter
    2.   Megger
    3.   Ohmmeter
41. One Picofarad is ?
    1.   1 * 10-6 farad
    2.   1 * 10-12 farad
    3.   1 * 1012 farad
42. Magnetic inclination is the least at the ?
    1.   poles
    2.   equator
    3.   isoclines
43. The unit of flux is the ?
    1.   Ampere turns / metre
    2.   Ampere turns
    3.   Weber
44. The symbol for flux density is ?
    1.   B(capital)
    2.   H(capital)
    3.   ø(phy)
45. If the rate of change of current is halved, mutual inductance will ?
    1.   Halve
    2.   Stay the same
    3.   Double
46. The electromagnetic brake coil in an actuator would be energised ?
    1.   only when the actuator is running
    2.   all the time in flight
    3.   only at the instant of starting and stopping
47. One purpose of a growler test is to determine the presence of ?
    1.   An out-of-round commutator
    2.   A broken field lead
    3.   A shorted armature
48. A series wound DC motor, the field has ?
    1.   many turns of thin wire
    2.   few turns of thick wire
    3.   few turns of thin wire
49. The voltage output of a generator is controlled by ?
    1.   varying the current of the output
    2.   varying the resistance of the output
    3.   varying the current of the field
50. A 6 pole wave-wound generator has ?
    1.   2 brushes
    2.   3 brushes
    3.   6 brushes
51. Commutator ripple can be reduced by ?
    1.   a resistor in series with the armature
    2.   increasing generator frequency
    3.   the use of a ripple filter
52. A shunt motor ?
    1.   is constant speed
    2.   has high starting torque
    3.   gives constant torque with variations in speed

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