Module -10 Final Practice Exam (Aviation Legislation 40 Questions 50 Mints)

 

Module - 10 (Aviation Legislation)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. Which is true about the privileges of Category C certifying staff ?
   1.   They can supervise trainee examinations
   2.   They can sign line maintenance tasks
   3.   They can certify base maintenance release
2. A Part-145 approval covers?
   1.   the major part of the organisation
   2.   base maintenance
   3.   only line maintenance
3. Which document defines the privileges and limitations of licence holders ?
   1.   Part-66
   2.   Part-147
   3.   Part-145
4. An Airworthiness Review Certificate (ARC) may be extended by ?
   1.   The aircraft manufacturer
   2.   CAMO approved under Part-M Subpart G
   3.   Any approved maintenance organization
5. Which Part specifies requirements for the certification of design organizations ?
   1.   Part-145
   2.   Part-M Subpart G
   3.   Part-21 Subpart J
6. The continuing airworthiness of aircraft components is managed under ?
   1.   Part-66
   2.   Part-147
   3.   Part-M
7. Who issues Airworthiness Directives in the European system ?
   1.   The operator
   2.   EASA
   3.   The manufacturer
8. Which Subpart of Part-M deals with Airworthiness Review ?
   1.   Subpart F
   2.   Subpart G
   3.   Subpart I
9. An EASA Form 1 is invalid if ?
   1.   It was issued by a non-approved organization
   2.   The item has expired shelf life
   3.   The form is handwritten
10. Which Part defines procedures for changes to type design ?
    1.   Part-M
    2.   Part-145
    3.   Part-21
11. In Germany, aircraft registration begins with ?
    1.   D-
    2.   I-
    3.   F-
12. An aircraft logbook records ?
    1.   Passenger details
    2.   Crew training
    3.   Flight and maintenance data
13. The validity of an ARC (Aircraft Review Certificate) is ?
    
    
    1.   2 years
    2.   1 year
    3.   3 years
14. JAR OPS subpart J covers ?
    1.   Instruments and equipment
    2.   Mass and balance
    3.   Maintenance
15. The CAMO is responsible for ?
    1.   Continuing airworthiness management
    2.   Air traffic control
    3.   Aircraft production
16. MOE stands for ?
    
    1.   Manual of Engineering
    2.   Maintenance Operation Equipment
    3.   Maintenance Organization Exposition
17. Which document must always be carried on board ?
    1.   Maintenance logbook
    2.   Certificate of Airworthiness
    3.   Pilot’s licence
18. The term “airworthiness” means ?
    
    1.   Fit for flight and safe operation
    2.   Approved by EASA
    3.   Designed in Europe
19. Part-66 refers to ?
    1.   Air operations
    2.   Continuing airworthiness
    3.   Aircraft maintenance licences
20. An aircraft Radio License has to be renewed ?
    
    1.   only on change of aircraft ownership
    2.   every five years
    3.   every three years
21. JAA was replaced by ?
    
    1.   IATA
    2.   ICAO
    3.   EASA
22. Which organization regulates civil aviation in Europe ?
    1.   FAA
    2.   EASA
    3.   IATA
23. Which Annex deals with personnel licensing ?
    
    1.   Annex 7
    2.   Annex 6
    3.   Annex 1
24. Which Annex of ICAO deals with airworthiness ?
    
    1.   Annex 9
    2.   Annex 8
    3.   Annex 7
25. The headquarters of ICAO is in ?
    
    1.   London
    2.   Brussels
    3.   Montreal
26. ICAO stands for ?
    1.   International Civil Aviation Organization
    2.   International Control of Air Operations
    3.   International Company of Aircraft Operators
27. Which document identifies aircraft nationality and registration ?
    1.   ARC
    2.   C of R
    3.   C of A
28. The main objective of ICAO is to ?
    1.   Set international aviation safety standards
    2.   Approve European aviation organizations
    3.   Train maintenance engineers
29. Who produces and prints maintenance schedules ?
    1.   CAA for Air Operators Certificate Organizations
    2.   CAA and approved by the manufacturer
    3.   The Part-M approved organisation
30. Details of placards and markings on aircraft will be found in ?
    1.   Operations Manual
    2.   ATA Chapter 11 of the AMM
    3.   Approved Maintenance Manual
31. CAP 360 relates to ?
    
    1.   EASA aircraft only
    2.   Crop spraying aircraft only
    3.   Public Transport aircraft
32. A service bulletin contains ?
    1.   A list of maintenance tasks to be carried out on a particular aircraft
    2.   Information concerning the airworthiness of aircraft and are distributed by the CAA
    3.   A detailed description of a problem and corrective action to be taken
33. The telecommunications log book is considered to be part of the ?
    1.   Radio Licence
    2.   Public Address Licence
    3.   Radio approved document
34. The period of validity of a Certificate of Fitness for Flight under 'A' Conditions is ?
    1.   1 flight
    2.   7 days
    3.   5 days
35. The excess ILS deviation light is coloured ?
    1.   Red and flashing
    2.   Amber and flashing
    3.   Amber and continuous
36. Category 2 auto-land with a decision height of 100 ft has a visual line up approach limit of ?
    1.   400 meters
    2.   300 meters
    3.   500 meters
37. CAA Additional Airworthiness Directives are printed on ?
    1.   Blue Papers
    2.   White Papers
    3.   Yellow Papers
38. A Noise Certificate is a requirement of ?
    1.   IR Part-M
    2.   JAR OPS
    3.   IR Part-21
39. The aircraft owner's Name Plate must be fixed ?
    1.   On the instrument panel
    2.   Near the main entrance of the aircraft
    3.   On the rear fuselage
40. Which of the following does not require a Noise Certificate ?
    1.   A small business jet aircraft
    2.   A fixed wing aircraft under 2730 kg
    3.   A helicopter under 5700 kg

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Module 11 – Aircraft Structures & Systems 100 sentences cover Aircraft structures and systems topics.

 1. Aircraft Structures

1. Fuselage provides strength, rigidity, and safe enclosure for crew, passengers, and cargo.

2. Semi-monocoque fuselage construction uses frames, stringers, bulkheads, and skin for strength.

3. Wing structure contains spars, ribs, and stringers to maintain aerodynamic shape.

4. Empennage includes horizontal stabilizer, vertical stabilizer, rudder, and elevator.

5. Primary flight controls are ailerons, elevator, and rudder for maneuvering.

6. Secondary flight controls include flaps, slats, spoilers, and trim tabs.

7. Landing gear absorbs landing loads, provides taxi support, and ground clearance.

8. Hydraulic actuators extend and retract landing gear during operation.

9. Aircraft doors use locking mechanisms to withstand cabin pressurization loads.

10. Composite materials reduce weight, improve corrosion resistance, and increase strength.

2. Hydraulic Systems

11. Hydraulic system uses pressurized fluid to transmit force and motion.

12. Pascal’s law states pressure applied to fluid is transmitted equally.

13. Hydraulic reservoirs store fluid, maintain pressure, and remove air bubbles.

14. Hydraulic pumps convert mechanical energy into fluid power pressure.

15. Filters remove contaminants, dirt, and particles from hydraulic system.

16. Hydraulic accumulators store pressure, absorb shocks, and damp pulsations.

17. Actuators convert hydraulic pressure into mechanical linear or rotary motion.

18. Pressure relief valves prevent over-pressurization and system damage.

19. Hydraulic lines are color-coded and labeled for maintenance safety.

20. Skydrol hydraulic fluid is fire resistant but corrosive to skin.

3. Pneumatic Systems

21. Pneumatic systems use compressed air for brakes, engine starting, and de-icing.

22. Sources of pneumatic power include engine bleed air and APU.

23. Pressure regulators maintain required pneumatic pressure during operation.

24. Moisture separators remove water vapor to avoid icing problems.

25. Pneumatic accumulators stabilize system pressure fluctuations effectively.

26. Over-pressure relief valves protect pneumatic system against excessive pressure.

27. Pneumatic system operates wing anti-ice boots using compressed air.

28. Engine cross-bleed valve controls pneumatic supply between engines.

29. Pneumatic leak detection uses overheat sensing loops along ducts.

30. Pneumatic manifolds distribute bleed air to multiple aircraft systems.

4. Landing Gear Systems

31. Retractable landing gear reduces drag and improves aerodynamic performance.

32. Nose gear provides steering control during taxiing and take-off.

33. Main gear supports aircraft weight during landing and ground operations.

34. Oleo strut absorbs landing shocks using hydraulic oil and nitrogen.

35. Landing gear doors reduce drag and protect retracted gear.

36. Anti-skid system prevents wheel lock-up and reduces tire wear.

37. Brake units are multi-disc or carbon disc assemblies for stopping.

38. Emergency extension system uses free-fall, pneumatic, or manual methods.

39. Proximity sensors provide landing gear position indication to cockpit.

40. Tire pressure must be checked regularly for safety and performance.

5. Electrical Systems

41. Aircraft electrical system provides power to avionics, lights, and instruments.

42. Direct Current (DC) is supplied by batteries and DC generators.

43. Alternating Current (AC) is supplied by alternators and inverters.

44. Transformer rectifier units convert AC power into regulated DC.

45. Circuit breakers protect wiring and components from overcurrent.

46. Bus bars distribute electrical power to aircraft subsystems.

47. Static inverters convert DC battery power into AC emergency power.

48. Ground power unit supplies external electrical power during maintenance.

49. Auxiliary Power Unit provides electrical and pneumatic power on ground.

50. Emergency power is supplied by battery when generators fail.

6. Avionics Systems

51. Pitot-static system measures airspeed, altitude, and vertical speed.

52. Altimeter displays aircraft altitude above mean sea level.

53. Airspeed indicator uses dynamic and static pressure difference.

54. Vertical speed indicator shows climb or descent rate.

55. Attitude indicator provides artificial horizon using gyroscopes.

56. Heading indicator gives aircraft directional reference during flight.

57. Radio altimeter measures height above ground using radio waves.

58. Flight Management System integrates navigation, performance, and guidance.

59. GPS provides global navigation signals using satellites.

60. Autopilot reduces pilot workload by automatically controlling flight path.

7. Fuel Systems

61. Fuel tanks store fuel inside wings, fuselage, or stabilizers.

62. Boost pumps deliver pressurized fuel to engines and APU.

63. Cross-feed valves allow fuel transfer between tanks during flight.

64. Fuel control unit meters correct amount of fuel to engine.

65. Fuel jettison system allows safe fuel dumping during emergencies.

66. Fuel filters remove water, contaminants, and particles from fuel.

67. Fuel quantity is measured by capacitance probes inside tanks.

68. Vent system prevents vacuum formation inside fuel tanks.

69. Fuel heaters prevent ice formation inside fuel lines.

70. Gravity feed ensures emergency fuel supply if pumps fail.

8. Environmental Systems

71. Pressurization system maintains cabin altitude and passenger comfort.

72. Outflow valve regulates cabin pressure by controlling air discharge.

73. Safety valve prevents excessive over-pressurization or negative pressure.

74. Air conditioning packs provide conditioned air using bleed air.

75. Mixing unit blends hot bleed air with cold conditioned air.

76. Recirculation fans reduce bleed air demand and save fuel.

77. Cabin temperature is controlled automatically or manually by pilots.

78. Oxygen system supplies crew and passengers during depressurization.

79. Chemical oxygen generators supply passenger masks during emergencies.

80. Portable oxygen bottles are available for crew mobility.

9. Fire Protection Systems

81. Fire detection uses continuous-loop, spot, and flame detectors.

82. Smoke detectors are installed in cargo compartments and lavatories.

83. Fire bottles contain Halon extinguishing agent under pressure.

84. Squibs rupture fire bottles for agent discharge when activated.

85. Engine fire handle closes fuel, hydraulic, and bleed air valves.

86. APU fire extinguishing system is independent from engine system.

87. Cargo fire suppression system uses multiple Halon bottles sequentially.

88. Fire warning indications are displayed on cockpit annunciator panels.

89. Built-in test equipment checks fire detection circuits automatically.

90. Cabin crew training includes fire drill and extinguisher operation.

10. Ice and Rain Protection

91. Pneumatic boots break ice by inflation and deflation cycles.

92. Thermal anti-ice uses hot engine bleed air on wings.

93. Windshield heat prevents ice formation and removes fogging.

94. Pitot probes use electrical heating for anti-ice protection.

95. Propeller de-icing uses electrical heating elements on blades.

96. Rain removal is achieved by windshield wipers and chemical rain repellent.

97. Thermal ice protection prevents engine inlet icing.

98. Electrical anti-ice systems protect static ports and sensors.

99. Ice detectors provide warning of ice accumulation to crew.

100. Integrated system combines pneumatic, thermal, and electrical anti-ice methods.

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Module -9 Final Practice Exam (Human Factors 20 Questions 25 Mints)

 

Module - 9 (Human Factors)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. Which part of the body is responsible for spatial orientation in flight ?
   1.   Lungs
   2.   Heart
   3.   Inner ear
2. What has a great impact on the safety practices of workplace?
   1.   Safety culture
   2.   Organizational culture
   3.   Motivation
3. What do you do when someone is hypothermic ?
   1.   Warm them up
   2.   Feed them sweet things because of their diabetes
   3.   Give them a drink because of dehydration
4. What is the effect of alcohol on pilot performance ?
   1.   Has no effect if consumed in small amounts
   2.   Impairs judgment and reaction time
   3.   Improves coordination
5. Which of the following can help prevent human errors in aviation ?
   1.   Ignoring fatigue
   2.   Relying solely on automation
   3.   Following standard operating procedures
6. Which statement is true regarding avoiding and managing errors ?
   1.   Increase the error vulnerability of particular tasks or task elements
   2.   Decrease the error tolerance of a workplace or system
   3.   Minimize the error liability of the individual or team
7. An engineer is performing a task in less than ideal conditions in order to meet an operational deadline is ?
   1.   making a rule based slip
   2.   committing a situational violation
   3.   committed a routine error
8. What is a latent failure ?
   1.   A failure which could not have been predicted
   2.   Receiving bad instruction from a manager who is out of touch with maintenance
   3.   A mistake that has already been made, but has not yet caused an accident
9. What part of the SHEL model would the aircraft design fit into ?
   1.   Hardware
   2.   Liveware
   3.   Environment
10. The ear is sensitive to sounds between certain frequencies ?
    1.   20 khz to 2000 khz
    2.   20 hz to 200 khz
    3.   20 hz to 20000 hz
11. Environmental stresses are ?
    1.   caused by noise, fumes, heat and vibration
    2.   tolerated by everyone equally
    3.   not normally cumulative
12. How does dehydration affect pilot performance ?
    1.   Improves cognitive function
    2.   Enhances reaction time
    3.   Causes fatigue and poor concentration
13. Which of the following is an example of complacency in aviation ?
    
    1.   Asking for assistance when needed
    2.   Ignoring warning signs due to overconfidence
    3.   Carefully checking instruments
14. What is the primary purpose of Crew Resource Management (CRM) ?
    1.   Train pilots to fly faster
    2.   Improve teamwork and decision-making
    3.   Reduce aircraft maintenance costs
15. Which type of fatigue occurs after long-term stress or workload ?
    1.   Chronic fatigue
    2.   Acute fatigue
    3.   Temporary fatigue
16. For a man to maintain his fitness and health the conducive maximum recommended alcohol intake is ?
    1.   9 - 14 units per month
    2.   28 units per day
    3.   28 units per week
17. Which of the following is a sign of hypoxia ?
    1.   Enhanced memory
    2.   Impaired judgment
    3.   Increased alertness
18. Motivation is ?
    
    1.   The thing that drives someone to do something
    2.   A reward or punishment designed to increase work rate
    3.   A reward or punishment designed to reduce errors
19. Myopia is _______ and a ______ lens is needed to correct it ?
    1.   long sightedness and concave
    2.   short sightedness and convex
    3.   short sightedness and concave
20. How many things can be stored in the short term memory ?
    
    1.   9 - 15
    2.   3 - 5
    3.   No limit

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