EASA Module M14: Propulsion Practice Questions

1. What is the primary function of a jet engine?
a) Produce rotational energy
b) Produce thrust ✅
c) Convert electrical energy

2. What is the Brayton cycle associated with?
a) Reciprocating engines
b) Gas turbine engines ✅
c) Rocket engines

3. What is the main purpose of the compressor in a gas turbine engine?
a) Increase airflow velocity
b) Increase airflow pressure ✅
c) Decrease temperature

4. What type of turbine drives the fan in a high-bypass turbofan engine?
a) High-pressure turbine
b) Low-pressure turbine ✅
c) Intermediate-pressure turbine

5. Which section of a jet engine is responsible for adding heat to the airflow?
a) Compressor
b) Combustion chamber ✅
c) Turbine

6. What is the typical fuel used in jet engines?
a) Gasoline
b) Jet-A1 ✅
c) Diesel

7. The purpose of an exhaust nozzle in a jet engine is to?
a) Reduce pressure
b) Increase thrust ✅
c) Cool the exhaust gases

8. What is the primary purpose of a thrust reverser?
a) Reduce engine noise
b) Help slow the aircraft ✅
c) Improve fuel efficiency

9. In a turboprop engine, the majority of thrust is produced by?
a) The propeller ✅
b) The exhaust gases
c) The turbine

10. What is a common method of starting a gas turbine engine?
a) Electric starter motor ✅
b) Hydraulic pump
c) Pneumatic compressor

11. What is "spool" in the context of gas turbine engines?
a) A single rotor shaft ✅
b) The combustion process
c) The exhaust system

12. What is the function of an accessory gearbox in a jet engine?
a) Increase thrust
b) Drive auxiliary components ✅
c) Increase fuel efficiency

13. The term "N1" in a turbofan engine refers to?
a) Fan speed ✅
b) High-pressure turbine speed
c) Compressor inlet temperature

14. What does EGT stand for in propulsion systems?
a) Exhaust Gas Temperature ✅
b) Engine Ground Test
c) Energy Gas Transfer

15. What is the primary purpose of an afterburner?
a) Reduce emissions
b) Provide additional thrust ✅
c) Improve fuel efficiency

16. The bypass ratio of an engine is the ratio of?
a) Compressor air to exhaust air
b) Bypass air to core air ✅
c) Fuel flow to air flow

17. What is the primary function of the diffuser in a jet engine?
a) Decrease air velocity ✅
b) Increase air pressure
c) Both a and b

18. What does the main purpose of the igniter plug in a jet engine?
a) To sustain combustion
b) To initiate combustion ✅
c) To regulate fuel flow

19. What type of propulsion system is used in rockets?
a) Jet propulsion
b) Solid or liquid fuel propulsion ✅
c) Electric propulsion

20. Which engine type is most efficient at subsonic speeds?
a) Turbojet
b) Turbofan ✅
c) Turboprop

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EASA Module M4: Electronics Practice Questions

1. What is the function of a transistor?
a) Convert AC to DC
b) Amplify or switch electronic signals ✅
c) Measure resistance

2. What is the primary purpose of a rectifier circuit?
a) Generate AC
b) Convert AC to DC ✅
c) Store charge

3. Which component is used to store electrical energy in an electric field?
a) Resistor
b) Inductor
c) Capacitor ✅

4. What is the purpose of a Zener diode?
a) Allow current in one direction
b) Stabilize voltage ✅
c) Amplify current

5. The basic logic gate that performs the AND function has an output of 1 when:
a) Both inputs are 1 ✅
b) Both inputs are 0
c) Either input is 1

6. Which material is commonly used in semiconductor devices?
a) Copper
b) Silicon ✅
c) Iron

7. What does the term "biasing" in a transistor mean?
a) Amplification of signals
b) Applying external voltage to establish operating conditions ✅
c) Regulating temperature

8. Which of the following is a unipolar device?
a) Diode
b) MOSFET ✅
c) Bipolar Junction Transistor (BJT)

9. The unit of inductance is:
a) Farad
b) Henry ✅
c) Ohm

10. What is the primary purpose of an operational amplifier?
a) To amplify signals ✅
b) To convert AC to DC
c) To filter frequencies

11. What is a printed circuit board (PCB)?
a) A board used for soldering components ✅
b) A device for amplifying signals
c) A type of power supply

12. What is the output of a NOT gate when the input is 1?
a) 0 ✅
b) 1
c) Cannot determine

13. Which of the following is a passive component?
a) Diode
b) Transistor
c) Resistor ✅

14. The most common type of filter used in electronic circuits is:
a) Band-pass filter
b) Low-pass filter ✅
c) High-pass filter

15. What is the main function of a voltage regulator?
a) Measure voltage
b) Maintain constant output voltage ✅
c) Convert AC to DC

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EASA Module M3: Electrical Fundamentals Practice Questions

 1. What is the unit of electric current?

a) Volt
b) Ampere ✅
c) Ohm

2. What is Ohm's Law?
a) $I = V/R$ ✅
b) $V = IR^2$
c) $R = VI$

3. What is the unit of resistance?
a) Coulomb
b) Ohm ✅
c) Farad

4. What does a capacitor store?
a) Charge ✅
b) Current
c) Energy

5. What is the formula for electrical power?
a) $P = IV$ ✅
b) $P = IR^2$
c) $P = V^2/I$

6. If a circuit has a current of 2A and a resistance of 5Ω, what is the voltage?
a) 10V ✅
b) 7V
c) 5V

7. What is the frequency of AC mains supply in Europe?
a) 50 Hz ✅
b) 60 Hz
c) 70 Hz

8. What is the primary function of a diode?
a) Amplify current
b) Allow current to flow in one direction ✅
c) Store electrical energy

9. What is the purpose of a fuse in a circuit?
a) To store energy
b) To regulate voltage
c) To protect against overcurrent ✅

10. Which type of current flows in one direction only?
a) Alternating Current (AC)
b) Direct Current (DC) ✅
c) Pulsating Current

11. The SI unit of capacitance is:
a) Henry
b) Farad ✅
c) Coulomb

12. In a parallel circuit, the total resistance is:
a) The sum of individual resistances
b) Always equal to the smallest resistance
c) Less than the smallest resistance ✅

13. What is the function of a transformer?
a) To increase or decrease voltage ✅
b) To store charge
c) To convert AC to DC

14. Which device is used to measure current in a circuit?
a) Voltmeter
b) Ammeter ✅
c) Ohmmeter

15. What is the unit of electrical charge?
a) Coulomb ✅
b) Farad
c) Ampere

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Module -10 Final Practice Exam (Aviation Legislation 40 Questions 50 Mints)

Module - 10 (Aviation Legislation)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. A register of airlines operating on an AOC is maintained by the ?
   1.   ICAO
   2.   FAA
   3.   CAA
2. A Part-145 approval covers?
   1.   the major part of the organisation
   2.   base maintenance
   3.   only line maintenance
3. Documents to be carried on a specific aircraft for a specific purpose is given in ?
   1.   JAR-OPS
   2.   BCAR Section A and B
   3.   AOC
4. To what does a B1-3 License apply to ?
   1.   Light aircraft with piston engines
   2.   Helicopter with turbines, their engines, airframes and electrics
   3.   Helicopters with piston engines, their engines, airframes and electrics
5. Where would you find the requirements and the syllabus for a maintenance license ?
   1.   EASA Part-147
   2.   EASA Part-145
   3.   EASA Part-66
6. EASA Form 26 is ?
   1.   the application for a part-66 licence
   2.   the application for an extension to a part-66 licence
   3.   the part-66 licence itself
7. Who is responsible for the control and issue of engineers licenses ?
   1.   JAA
   2.   CAA
   3.   EASA
8. EASA IR Part-66 applies to aircraft ?
   1.   above 5700 kg only
   2.   below 5700 kg only
   3.   above and below 5700 kg
9. An EASA IR B1.2 engineer can certify ?
   1.   aircraft - piston engined
   2.   aircraft -both turbine and piston engined
   3.   aircraft - turbine engined
10. A Part-145 company is required to be headed by ?
    1.   a technical director
    2.   a licensed engineer
    3.   an accountable manager
11. The responsibility for reporting incidents and occurrences during a flight rests with the ?
    1.   aircraft commander
    2.   engineer clearing the tech log
    3.   air stewards
12. After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a Licensed Engineer, what is issued ?
    1.   A Certificate of Maintenance Review
    2.   A Flight Release Certificate
    3.   Certificate of Release to Service
13. Part-66 certifying staff must be ?
    
    
    1.   There is no Age limitation
    2.   not less than 21 years of age
    3.   not less than 18 years of age
14. JAR OPS subpart J covers ?
    1.   Instruments and equipment
    2.   Mass and balance
    3.   Maintenance
15. What is the minimum legal decision height for Cat I auto landing?
    1.   200 to 300 ft
    2.   100 to 200 ft
    3.   400 to 500 ft
16. A Certificate of design is raisedl ?
    
    1.   by the CAA
    2.   by the operator
    3.   by the manufacturer
17. An EASA Part-145 organisation may classify repairs as major or minor if approved in accordance with ?
    1.   EASA Part-145
    2.   EASA Part-21 subpart J
    3.   JAR OPS subpart M
18. What Certificate must an Operator have who flies for public transport and cargo carrying ?
    
    1.   Air Operators Certificate
    2.   Air Transport Certificate
    3.   Air Navigation Certificate
19. The period of validity of an EASA C of A is ?
    1.   As stated on certificate
    2.   36 months
    3.   Indefinite
20. An aircraft Radio License has to be renewed ?
    
    1.   only on change of aircraft ownership
    2.   every five years
    3.   every three years
21. The 'Threshold Time' for an ETOPS approved aircraft is ?
    
    1.   120 minutes
    2.   90 minutes
    3.   60 minutes
22. A Certificate of Maintenance Review for an aircraft over 2,730 kg has a maximum period of validity of?
    
    1.   6 months
    2.   4 months
    3.   1 year
23. An aircraft operators MEL ?
    
    1.   must be the same as the aircrafts MMEL
    2.   can be less restrictive than the aircrafts MMEL
    3.   can be more restrictive than the aircrafts MMEL
24. Fuel Flow results are entered in the ?
    
    1.   The Fuel Uplift column of the Tech Log
    2.   Aircraft Log Book
    3.   Engine Log Book
25. Airworthiness Notices 3 and 10 deal with ?
    
    1.   Maintenance
    2.   Approvals
    3.   Licensing
26. What documents should be carried when flying an aircraft overseas for the purpose of exportation?
    1.   C of A for export, a C of A for Ferry Purposes and a C of R
    2.   C of A for export, a ferry certificate and a permit to fly
    3.   C of A for export, a C of R, and a validation certificate
27. A glider being used privately, and not crossing boundaries of countries ?
    1.   Must have a C of A
    2.   Does not need a C of A
    3.   Must have a Permit to Fly
28. Information on Air Operators Certification is to be found in ANO ?
    1.   Article 6
    2.   Article 10
    3.   Article 9
29. An airline's MEL contains an additional note (M). This indicates a ?
    1.   Modified component or system
    2.   Mandatory operational restrictions
    3.   Maintenance requirements
30. What does MSDS stand for ?
    1.   Metal Surface Dimension Sector
    2.   Material Safety Data Sheet
    3.   Maximum Structural Design System
31. CAP 360 relates to ?
    
    1.   EASA aircraft only
    2.   Crop spraying aircraft only
    3.   Public Transport aircraft
32. A service bulletin contains ?
    1.   a list of maintenance tasks to be carried out on a particular aircraft
    2.   information concerning the airworthiness of aircraft and are distributed by the CAA
    3.   a detailed description of a problem and corrective action to be taken
33. The telecommunications log book is considered to be part of the ?
    1.   Radio Licence
    2.   Public Address Licence
    3.   Radio approved document
34. Under EASA how long does the Technical Log have to be retained ?
    1.   2 years after the last entry
    2.   3 years after the last entry
    3.   5 years after the last entry
35. Aircraft components released for service from an EASA Part-M approved organization must do so under cover of ?
    1.   EASA Form 10
    2.   Form 268A
    3.   EASA Form 1
36. Who is responsible for making a recommendation for a C of A renewal ?
    1.   The type rated engineer
    2.   The approved organization maintaining the aircraft to an Approved Maintenance Schedule
    3.   The CAA Surveyor
37. How many copies of the Certificate of Registration are required ?
    1.   One copy for the owner/operator
    2.   Two copies, one for the owner, one for the aircraft
    3.   Two copies, one for the flight manual, one for the filing system
38. A Noise Certificate is a requirement of ?
    1.   IR Part-M
    2.   JAR OPS
    3.   IR Part-21
39. A permit to fly is valid ?
    1.   Until the date stated on it
    2.   For 12 months
    3.   Only for evaluating a modification
40. The details of design of a particular aircraft can be found where?
    1.   The Declaration of Design and Performance
    2.   The Maintenance Manual
    3.   EASA Certification Specification 25

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Module -7 Final Practice Exam (Maintenance Practices 80 Questions 100 Mints)

 

Module -7 (Maintenance Practice)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. An aircraft should not be refueled when ?
   1.   the APU is running
   2.   navigation and landing light in operation
   3.   within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar operating
2. A CO2 extinguisher is used on ?
   1.   solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires
   2.   solid, liquid and electrical fires
   3.   solid and liquid fires
3. Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire ?
   1.   CO2
   2.   BCF
   3.   Water
4. Once a person has been disconnected from the source of an electrical shock the next step should be ?
   1.   seek assistance immediately
   2.   check for breathing start AR if necessary
   3.   check for pulse start cardiac massage if necessary
5. Water marks on bearings are indications of ?
   1.   bearing been run dry
   2.   bearing insufficiently lubricated
   3.   intergranular corrosion
6. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft structural parts are graded as ?
   1.   1, 2 and 3
   2.   class A, B and C
   3.   primary, secondary and tertiary
7. Dye penetrant kits should be stored ?
   1.   in direct sunlight to keep it dry
   2.   out of sunlight in a dry place
   3.   in a dark damp cupboard
8. If the aircraft is away from base who may certify the second part of the duplicate inspection ?
   1.   any licensed engineer
   2.   a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft type
   3.   a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type
9. What colour is used to identify a 'primary structure' when using the aircraft Maintenance Manual ?
   1.   Red
   2.   Yellow
   3.   Green
10. How many primary bonding conductors are required on an engine ?
    1.   1 only
    2.   2 on one side
    3.   1 on each side
11. A lightning strike on an aircraft would show ?
    1.   the entry and exit point
    2.   the entry point only
    3.   the exit point only
12. After a heavy landing you should check ?
    
    1.   engine module alignment
    2.   engine compressor shaft alignment
    3.   engine thrust alignment
13. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by ?
    aircraft will
    
    1.   tension
    2.   hogging
    3.   sagging
14. The angle between starts on a double start thread is ?
    1.   120 degrees
    2.   180 degrees
    3.   90 degrees
15. How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened cables?
    1.   Earth one end of the screen
    2.   Earth both ends of the screen
    3.   Do not earth the screen
16. Spot facing is done to ?
    
    1.   provide a good surface for welding
    2.   compensate for height in lieu of a spring washer
    3.   provide a flat area on a rough surface
17. A jury strut is one giving?
    1.   a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads
    2.   a temporary support
    3.   additional support to a stressed area
18. Hi-loks are installed with the ?
    
    1.   thread and shank not lubricated
    2.   shank lubricated when fitting
    3.   thread lubricated when fitting
19. What type of rivet would you use when there is access to only one side of the work ?
    
    1.   Hilok
    2.   Pop
    3.   Blind
20. The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is ?
    
    1.   120°C
    2.   Pop
    3.   Blind
21. What NDT would you carry out on aluminium alloy ?
    
    1.   Electroflux
    2.   Magnetic flaw
    3.   Ultrasonic
22. To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used ?
    
    1.   Magnetic Flaw
    2.   Dye penetrant
    3.   Radiographic
23. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the surface of the test piece is cleaned down to bare metal ?
    1.   Dye-penetrant
    2.   Magnetic Particle
    3.   Eddy Current
24. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive testing is a mixture of ?
    1.   lubricating oil and lard oil
    2.   lubricating oil and paraffin
    3.   lubricating oil and petrol
25. What is an isotope the power source of ?
    1.   Gamma Rays
    2.   Ultra Violet Rays
    3.   X-Rays
26. Vapour phase inhibitor should be used ?
    1.   when degreasing a component
    2.   when re-protecting after corrosion
    3.   when painting an aircraft
27. What is used on magnesium to remove corrosion ?
    1.   Strontium chromate
    2.   Selenious acid
    3.   Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution
28. Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not allowed ?
    1.   in the end thirds of the rod
    2.   in the middle third of the rod
    3.   anywhere on the rod
29. What is used on Magnesium to re-protect it ?
    1.   Chromic Acid
    2.   Deoxidine
    3.   Selenious Acid
30. Taper pins are used in which of the following applications ?
    1.   To take compression loads
    2.   To take shear loads
    3.   To take compression and shear loads
31. What test do you do on a bonded join?
    1.   Peel
    2.   Shear
    3.   Tension
32. De-icing fluid Type 1 is used ?
    1.   where holdover times are long
    2.   where the ambient temperature is below -10degrees Centigrade
    3.   for short holdover times
33. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should be attached to ?
    1.   the tail cone
    2.   the main gear
    3.   the nose gear
34. An aircraft should be cleared of snow ?
    1.   using air blast
    2.   using hot fluid
    3.   using cold fluid
35. When weighing an aircraft, the hydraulic system should be ?
    1.   filled to 'maximum level' mark
    2.   completely full
    3.   empty
36. When weighing an aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units are positioned ?
    1.   either under or on top of each jack
    2.   one under each jack
    3.   one on top of each jack
37. Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are ?
    1.   Either positive or negative
    2.   Positive
    3.   Negative
38. The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and ?
    1.   zinc chloride
    2.   hydrochloric acid
    3.   borax powder
39. Brazing material is made from ?
    1.   copper and tin and lead
    2.   copper zinc and silver
    3.   copper, silver and tin
40. The materials most commonly soldered in soft soldering are ?
    1.   aluminium and magnesium
    2.   copper zinc and silver
    3.   copper, silver and tin
41. Silver solder melts within the range ?
    1.   200°C - 400°C
    2.   600°C - 850°C
    3.   400°C - 550°C
42. A flux is used in soldering to ?
    1.   etch the metal surface for more adhesion
    2.   dissolve oxides
    3.   prevent solder spikes
43. Plumbers solder is grade ?
    1.   B
    2.   C
    3.   D
44. Before soldering stainless steel it must be ?
    1.   Pickled
    2.   Cleaned with emery cloth
    3.   Sand papered
45. In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below it ?
    1.   3 - 4 inches
    2.   2 - 3 inches
    3.   1 - 2 inches
46. Marking out on stainless steel can be clarified by application of ?
    1.   copper sulphate
    2.   sal ammoniac
    3.   ammonia
47. A hole drilled at the intersection of two bends in a fabricated sheet metal component is called ?
    1.   a drain hole
    2.   a crack stopper
    3.   a relief hole
48. The formula for setback for a 90° bend is ?
    1.   (½R + T)
    2.   (R + T)
    3.   (R + ½T)
49. The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from ?
    1.   2024 aluminium alloy
    2.   7075 aluminium alloy
    3.   2117 aluminium alloy
50. A cable should be replaced when individual wires are worn greater than ?
    1.   40%
    2.   60%
    3.   20%
51. HTS aircraft control cables are protected from corrosion by ?
    1.   zinc plating
    2.   cadmium coating
    3.   Galvanising
52. How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer ?
    1.   Use correct chart and correct riser
    2.   Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized cables
    3.   Use a load meter to apply the correct load
53. Backlash is a type of wear associated with ?
    1.   bearings
    2.   rivets
    3.   gears
54. Ball and roller bearings are made from a combination of low carbon steel and a percentage of ?
    1.   Nickel
    2.   Nickel chrome
    3.   Chromium
55. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a series of ?
    1.   Rectangles
    2.   Diamonds
    3.   Dots
56. The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series of ?
    1.   circles
    2.   squares
    3.   diamonds
57. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be ?
    1.   twice the working pressure for two minutes
    2.   three times the working pressure for five minutes
    3.   1.5 times the working pressure
58. The minimum rivet pitch is ?
    1.   2 * the rivet diameter
    2.   3 * the rivet diameter
    3.   2 1/2 * the rivet diameter
59. What is the approximate distance of the sphere of influence of a rivet ?
    1.   5 D
    2.   2 D
    3.   4 D
60. Avdel rivets are closed by ?
    1.   A tapered mandrel
    2.   A broaching process
    3.   A squeezing process
61. In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit ?
    1.   1/16
    2.   1/32
    3.   1/10
62. 1EF6B22 NMSV What does the B mean?
    1.   Circuit function
    2.   Cable number
    3.   Segment letter
63. E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a ?
    1.   phase indication
    2.   system ID code
    3.   cable size
64. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is ?
    1.   500 mm
    2.   12 inches
    3.   3 feet
65. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by ?
    1.   changing the position of the pins
    2.   using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations
    3.   varying the torque applied to the handles
66. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out ?
    1.   a milli-volt drop test
    2.   a continuity check
    3.   a bonding check
67. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire ?
    1.   5 minutes
    2.   50 minutes
    3.   15 minutes
68. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be used on ?
    1.   22 - 18
    2.   16 - 14
    3.   12 - 10
69. The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no less than ?
    1.   5 times its depth
    2.   10 times its depth
    3.   20 times its depth
70. Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge ?
    1.   Clearance
    2.   Tolerance
    3.   Allowance
71. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is ?
    1.   1 : 400
    2.   1 : 200
    3.   1 : 600
72. NTS on a drawing stands for ?
    1.   Not To Scale
    2.   Not True Scale
    3.   No Tolerance System
73. The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is ?
    1.   BS 308
    2.   BS 306
    3.   BS 307
74. The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is ?
    1.   1 megohm
    2.   1 ohm
    3.   1 kilohm
75. A pyrometer is a ?
    1.   thermometer for use at high temperature
    2.   pyramid shaped altimeter
    3.   foam/granule fire extinguisher
76. On a long coaxial cable how would you check for discontinuities and shorts in situ ?
    1.   Continuity tester
    2.   Safety ohmmeter
    3.   Time Domain Reflectometer
77. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is?
    1.   the number of teeth on the blade
    2.   its length
    3.   the number of teeth per inch
78. What is the clearance angle on a normal twist drill ?
    1.   59 degrees
    2.   12 degrees
    3.   130 degrees
79. A rivet shaver is used to ?
    1.   Mill the tail after setting
    2.   Mill the tail after cutting
    3.   Mill the head flush
80. What temperature should the heat gun be set for shrinking heat shrink sleeve ?
    1.   100°C above rated temperature
    2.   100°C below rated temperature
    3.   At the rated temperature

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