Aircraft Basic Definitions

 Aviation Basic Definitions  

Aircraft:  A machine that can fly, such as an airplane or helicopter.

Aerodynamics: The study of how air moves around objects, especially aircraft.

Aileron: A hinged surface on the wing that controls roll movement.

Altitude: The height of an aircraft above the ground or sea level.

Airfoil: A shape designed to produce lift when air flows over it.

Attitude: The orientation of an aircraft in relation to the horizon.

Chord Line: A straight line connecting the leading and trailing edges of a wing.

Drag: The force that resists the motion of an aircraft through the air.

Elevator: A control surface on the tail that adjusts the aircraft's pitch.

Flaps:  Movable surfaces on the wing that increase lift or drag.

Fuselage: The main body of an aircraft, where passengers and cargo are carried.

Landing Gear: The wheels or skids that allow an aircraft to land and take off.

Lift: The force that keeps an aircraft in the air, created by airflow over the wings.

Propeller: A rotating blade that generates thrust to move an aircraft forward.

Rudder: A control surface on the tail that controls yaw movement.

Stall: A condition where the wing stops generating enough lift due to a high angle of attack.

Thrust: The forward force produced by an engine or propeller.

Torque: A twisting force, often produced by an engine, that affects aircraft stability.

Turbulence: Irregular air movement that causes an aircraft to shake or move unpredictably.

Yaw: The side-to-side movement of an aircraft's nose, controlled by the rudder.

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Module -9 Final Practice Exam (Human Factors 20 Questions 25 Mints)

 

Module - 9 (Human Factors)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. Which part of the body is responsible for spatial orientation in flight ?
   1.   Lungs
   2.   Heart
   3.   Inner ear
2. What has a great impact on the safety practices of workplace?
   1.   Safety culture
   2.   Organizational culture
   3.   Motivation
3. What do you do when someone is hypothermic ?
   1.   Warm them up
   2.   Feed them sweet things because of their diabetes
   3.   Give them a drink because of dehydration
4. What is the effect of alcohol on pilot performance ?
   1.   Has no effect if consumed in small amounts
   2.   Impairs judgment and reaction time
   3.   Improves coordination
5. Which of the following can help prevent human errors in aviation ?
   1.   Ignoring fatigue
   2.   Relying solely on automation
   3.   Following standard operating procedures
6. Which statement is true regarding avoiding and managing errors ?
   1.   Increase the error vulnerability of particular tasks or task elements
   2.   Decrease the error tolerance of a workplace or system
   3.   Minimize the error liability of the individual or team
7. An engineer is performing a task in less than ideal conditions in order to meet an operational deadline is ?
   1.   making a rule based slip
   2.   committing a situational violation
   3.   committed a routine error
8. What is a latent failure ?
   1.   A failure which could not have been predicted
   2.   Receiving bad instruction from a manager who is out of touch with maintenance
   3.   A mistake that has already been made, but has not yet caused an accident
9. What part of the SHEL model would the aircraft design fit into ?
   1.   Hardware
   2.   Liveware
   3.   Environment
10. The ear is sensitive to sounds between certain frequencies ?
    1.   20 khz to 2000 khz
    2.   20 hz to 200 khz
    3.   20 hz to 20000 hz
11. Environmental stresses are ?
    1.   caused by noise, fumes, heat and vibration
    2.   tolerated by everyone equally
    3.   not normally cumulative
12. How does dehydration affect pilot performance ?
    1.   Improves cognitive function
    2.   Enhances reaction time
    3.   Causes fatigue and poor concentration
13. Which of the following is an example of complacency in aviation ?
    
    1.   Asking for assistance when needed
    2.   Ignoring warning signs due to overconfidence
    3.   Carefully checking instruments
14. What is the primary purpose of Crew Resource Management (CRM) ?
    1.   Train pilots to fly faster
    2.   Improve teamwork and decision-making
    3.   Reduce aircraft maintenance costs
15. Which type of fatigue occurs after long-term stress or workload ?
    1.   Chronic fatigue
    2.   Acute fatigue
    3.   Temporary fatigue
16. For a man to maintain his fitness and health the conducive maximum recommended alcohol intake is ?
    1.   9 - 14 units per month
    2.   28 units per day
    3.   28 units per week
17. Which of the following is a sign of hypoxia ?
    1.   Enhanced memory
    2.   Impaired judgment
    3.   Increased alertness
18. Motivation is ?
    
    1.   The thing that drives someone to do something
    2.   A reward or punishment designed to increase work rate
    3.   A reward or punishment designed to reduce errors
19. Myopia is _______ and a ______ lens is needed to correct it ?
    1.   long sightedness and concave
    2.   short sightedness and convex
    3.   short sightedness and concave
20. How many things can be stored in the short term memory ?
    
    1.   9 - 15
    2.   3 - 5
    3.   No limit

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All types of AMEL Modules Questions quantity and Time information

 Modules Questions and time information

MODULE 1 MATHEMATICS

1. Category A:    16 multi-choice Time allowed 20 minutes.
2. Category B1:  32 multi-choice Time allowed 40 minutes.
3. Category B2:  32 multi-choice Time allowed 40 minutes.
4. Category B3:  28 multi-choice Time allowed 35 minutes. 

MODULE 2 PHYSICS

1. Category A:    32 multi-choice Time allowed 40 minutes.
2. Category B1:  52 multi-choice Time allowed 65 minutes.
3. Category B2:  52 multi-choice Time allowed 65 minutes.
4. Category B3:  28 multi-choice Time allowed 35 minutes.

MODULE 3 ELECTRICAL FUNDAMENTALS

1. Category A:    20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
2. Category B1:  52 multi-choice Time allowed 65 minutes.
3. Category B2:  52 multi-choice Time allowed 65 minutes.
4. Category B3:  24 multi-choice Time allowed 30 minutes.

MODULE 4 ELECTRONIC FUNDAMENTALS

1. Category B1:   20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
2. Category B2:   40 multi-choice Time allowed 50 minutes.
3. Category B3:   8 multi-choice Time allowed 10 minutes.

MODULE 5 DIGITAL TECHNIQUES

1. Category A:         16 multi-choice Time allowed 20 minutes.
2. Category B1.1:    40 multi-choice Time allowed 50 minutes.
3. Category B1.3:    40 multi-choice Time allowed 50 minutes
4. Category B1.2:    20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
5. Category B1.4:    20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
6. Category B2:       72 multi-choice Time allowed 90 minutes.
7. Category B3:       16 multi-choice Time allowed 20 minutes.

MODULE 6 MATERIALS AND HARDWARE

1. Category A:    52 multi-choice Time allowed 65 minutes.
2. Category B1:  72 multi-choice Time allowed 90 minutes.
3. Category B2:  60 multi-choice Time allowed 75 minutes.
4. Category B3:  60 multi-choice Time allowed 75 minutes.

MODULE 7A MAINTENANCE PRACTICES

1. Category A:    72 multi-choice and 2 essay questions. Time allowed 90 mins plus 40 mins. 
2. Category B1:  80 multi-choice and 2 essay questions. Time allowed 100 mins plus 40 mins.
3. Category B2:  60 multi-choice and 2 essay questions. Time allowed 75 mins plus 40 mins.

MODULE 7B MAINTENANCE PRACTICES

1. Category B3:  60 multi-choice and 2 essay questions. Time allowed 75 mins plus 40 mins.

MODULE 8 BASIC AERODYNAMICS

1. Category A:    20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
2. Category B1:  20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
3. Category B2:  20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
4. Category B3:  20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.

MODULE 9A HUMAN FACTORS

1. Category A:     20 multi-choice and 1 essay question. Time allowed 25 mins plus 20 mins.
2. Category B1:   20 multi-choice and 1 essay question. Time allowed 25 mins plus 20 mins.
3. Category B2:   20 multi-choice and 1 essay question. Time allowed 25 mins plus 20 mins.

MODULE 9B — HUMAN FACTORS

1. Category B3:  16 multi-choice and 1 essay questions. Time allowed 20 mins plus 20 mins.

MODULE 10 AVIATION LEGISLATION

1. Category A:    32 multi-choice and 1 essay question. Time allowed 40 mins plus 20 mins.
2. Category B1:  40 multi-choice and 1 essay question. Time allowed 50 mins plus 20 mins.
3. Category B2:  40 multi-choice and 1 essay question. Time allowed 50 mins plus 20 mins.
4. Category B3:  32 multi-choice and 1 essay questions. Time allowed 40 mins plus 20 mins.

MODULE 11A TURBINE AEROPLANE STRUCTURES & SYS

1. Category A:    108 multi-choice Time allowed 135 minutes. 
2. Category B1:  140 multi-choice Time allowed 175 minutes.

MODULE 11B — PISTON AEROPLANE AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES & SYS

1. Category A:    72 multi-choice Time allowed 90 minutes.
2. Category B1:  100 multi-choice Time allowed 125 minutes.

 MODULE 11C — PISTON AEROPLANE, STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS 

1. Category B3:   60 multi-choice Time allowed 75 minutes.

MODULE 12 HELICOPTER AERODYNAMICS, STRUCTURES AND SYS

1. Category A:    100 multi-choice Time allowed 125 minutes.
2. Category B1:  128 multi-choice Time allowed 160 minutes.

MODULE 13 AIRCRAFT STRUCTURES AND SYSTEMS

1. Category B2:   180 multi-choice Time allowed 225 minutes.

MODULE 14 PROPULSION 

1. Category B2:    24 multi-choice Time allowed 30 minutes.

MODULE 15 GAS TURBINE ENGINE

1. Category A:    60 multi-choice Time allowed 75 minutes.
2. Category B1:  92 multi-choice Time allowed 115 minutes.

MODULE 16 PISTON ENGINE

1. Category A:    52 multi-choice Time allowed 65 minutes.
2. Category B1:  72 multi-choice Time allowed 90 minutes.
3. Category B3:  68 multi-choice Time allowed 85 minutes.

MODULE 17A PROPELLER

1. Category A:    20 multi-choice Time allowed 25 minutes.
2. Category B1:  32 multi-choice Time allowed 40 minutes.

MODULE 17B PROPELLER

1. Category B3:   28 multi-choice Time allowed 35 minutes

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Module - 13 Final Practice Exam (Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures & Systems 182 Questions 220 Mints)

 

Module - 13 (Aircraft Aerodynamics, Structures & Systems)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. What is the primary purpose of a servo tab on an aircraft control surface?
   1.   To provide aerodynamic balance during flight
   2.   To increase the structural strength of the control surface
   3.   To reduce the control force required by the pilot
2. In a fly-by-wire flight control system, how are pilot inputs transmitted to the control surfaces?
   1.   Mechanically through cables and pulleys
   2.   Electrically via signal wires to actuators
   3.   Hydraulically through fluid lines
3. What is the function of a spoiler on an aircraft wing?
   1.   To decrease lift and increase drag
   2.   To increase lift during takeoff
   3.   Hydraulically through fluid lines
4. Which component is responsible for providing lateral stability in an aircraft?
   1.   Horizontal stabilizer
   2.   Dihedral angle of the wings
   3.   Vertical stabilizer
5. What is the purpose of a winglet on a modern aircraft?
   1.   To enhance the structural integrity of the wing
   2.   To increase the aircraft's maximum speed
   3.   To reduce wingtip vortices and improve fuel efficiency
6. What is the primary function of an aircraft's pressurization system?
   1.   To maintain a comfortable cabin temperature
   2.   To ensure structural integrity at high altitudes
   3.   To maintain cabin pressure at a safe and comfortable level
7. What is the purpose of a ram air turbine (RAT) in modern aircraft?
   1.   To assist in engine thrust during takeoff
   2.   To provide emergency hydraulic and electrical power
   3.   To improve aerodynamic efficiency
8. In avionics, what does the term "glass cockpit" refer to?
   1.   A cockpit design that minimizes the use of metal components
   2.   An aircraft cockpit with large windows for better visibility
   3.   A cockpit equipped with electronic flight instrument displays
9. What is the main advantage of a composite material over traditional aluminum in aircraft structures?
   1.   Greater resistance to corrosion
   2.   Higher electrical conductivity
   3.   Easier to repair in the field
10. In an aircraft's fuel system, what is the purpose of a fuel ejector pump?
    1.   To transfer fuel from fuel pump to another
    2.   To pressurize the fuel system for engine start
    3.   To scavenge fuel from low points in the tank
11. What is the function of the aircraft’s electrical system?
    1.   To provide power to the aircraft's avionics, lights, and other systems
    2.   To monitor the engine’s performance
    3.   To regulate the cabin pressure during flight
12. What is the function of the aircraft's altimeter?
    
    1.   To monitor the engine’s fuel flow
    2.   To measure the aircraft’s speed relative to the surrounding air
    3.   To measure the aircraft’s altitude based on the air pressure outside
13. When the trailing edge flaps are lowered, the aircraft will?
    
    1.   sink
    2.   pitch nose down
    3.   pitch nose up
14. What is the purpose of the aircraft's trim system?
    1.   To increase the aircraft's lift during takeoff
    2.   To adjust control surfaces for maintaining the desired flight attitude
    3.   To provide emergency backup power
15. What is the primary function of the aircraft's autopilot system?
    1.   To assist the pilot in controlling the aircraft by maintaining set parameters
    2.   To perform all flight maneuvers automatically
    3.   To handle communication with air traffic control
16. What does a flight data recorder (FDR) in an aircraft do?
    
    1.   Manages the aircraft’s fuel consumption during flight
    2.   Tracks the maintenance history of the aircraft
    3.   Records and stores flight parameters such as speed, altitude, and heading
17. In an aircraft’s cabin pressurization system, what is the purpose of the outflow valve?
    1.   To maintain a constant cabin altitude
    2.   To vent excess cabin air to the atmosphere
    3.   To control the temperature within the cabin
18. What is the function of a vane-type anemometer in an aircraft’s weather system?
    1.   To measure wind speed
    2.   To measure the temperature of the air
    3.   To measure the barometric pressure
19. What does a flight management system (FMS) do in an aircraft?
    1.   It monitors engine performance during flight
    2.   It manages the cabin temperature
    3.   It controls the flight path and navigation of the aircraft
20. What does the acronym "TCAS" stand for in aviation?
    1.   Traffic Collision Avoidance System
    2.   Total Collision Avoidance System
    3.   Transponder Collision Avoidance System
21. What is the main function of a transponder in aviation?
    1.   To communicate with ground services for maintenance
    2.   To generate the aircraft’s engine performance data
    3.   To track aircraft location for air traffic control
22. What does the acronym "ILS" stand for in aviation?
    1.   Integrated Landing System
    2.   Instrument Landing System
    3.   In-flight Landing System
23. What is the primary function of a radar altimeter in an aircraft?
    1.   To measure the aircraft's altitude relative to sea level
    2.   To monitor the aircraft's speed and fuel consumption
    3.   To measure the aircraft's altitude above the terrain below
24. What is the role of the aircraft's static pressure system?
    1.   To control airspeed
    2.   To measure altitude by sensing atmospheric pressure
    3.   To measure the temperature of the atmosphere
25. What does the acronym "ECAM" stand for in aviation?
    1.   Electronic Communications and Air Management
    2.   Engine Control and Monitoring
    3.   Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitor
26. in a superhet receiver, the advantage of an RF amplifier is ?
    1.   it improves signal to noise ratio
    2.   it amplifies output stages
    3.   it couples noise factors
27. on GPWS, with aircraft below 1700ft ?
    1.   no traffic will be shown
    2.   systems is disabled
    3.   all traffic produces aural alert
28. GPS frequency is ?
    1.   1575 MHz
    2.   1575 GHz
    3.   1525 MHz
29. Mode S transponders transmits a binary code of ?
    1.   12bits
    2.   64bits
    3.   24bits
30. An elevator controls the aircraft motion in ?
    1.   yaw
    2.   pitch
    3.   roll
31. Why is a wire HF antenna covered in polythene?
    1.   At high altitudes
    2.   To prevent corrosion
    3.   To provide lightning protection
32. When an aircraft is heading due north (magnetic) towards a VOR station the reference and variable signals will be ?
    1.   270° out of phase
    2.   in phase
    3.   180° out of phase
33. The modulation of the outer marker is ?
    1.   400 Hz
    2.   1300 Hz
    3.   3000 Hz
34. Which of the following modes does a autopilot go through in correct sequence?
    1.   Rollout, attitude, flare
    2.   Attitude, flare, rollout
    3.   Flare, attitude, rollout
35. The VOR system comprises ?
    1.   reference phase signal
    2.   variable phase signal
    3.   variable and reference phase signals
36. On an ILS approach what will cause the aircraft to fly onto the beam?
    1.   Glideslope deviation
    2.   Course deviation
    3.   Radio deviation
37. L band DME transmits on a frequency of ?
    1.   1090 MHz
    2.   2210 MHz
    3.   4133 MHz
38. Laser gyros have ?
    1.   2 rotating parts
    2.   4moving parts
    3.   no rotating parts
39. Flight management control system (FMCS) utilises ?
    1.   VOR, ADF, DME
    2.   ILS, DME, ADC
    3.   ILS, VOR, ADF
40. What channel of the autopilot does the glideslope control?
    1.   Pitch
    2.   Roll
    3.   Yaw
41. Radio marker information is displayed on ?
    1.   ADI
    2.   EICAS
    3.   HIS
42. What is the authority of series actuator on an helicopters autopilot??
    1.   100%
    2.   50%
    3.   10%
43. If an aircraft is on east of VOR beacon, the reference and variable phases are ?
    1.   Opposite phase
    2.   Phase quadrature
    3.   In phase
44. What is the function of an aircraft's wing slats?
    1.   To provide stability during takeoff and landing
    2.   To increase the aircraft's speed during flight
    3.   To increase lift by allowing the wing to operate at a higher angle of attack without stalling
45. In aircraft maintenance, what is the purpose of a non-destructive testing (NDT) method like ultrasonic inspection?
    1.   To assess the chemical composition of materials
    2.   To detect internal flaws without damaging the component
    3.   To measure the thickness of paint layers
46. What is the primary purpose of an aircraft's environmental control system (ECS)?
    1.   To manage cabin lighting and in-flight entertainment
    2.   To monitor and display engine performance parameters
    3.   To control cabin temperature, pressure, and air quality
47. What is the purpose of a vortex generator on an aircraft wing?
    1.   To increase lift during takeoff
    2.   To delay flow separation and maintain control at high angles of attack
    3.   To reduce drag by smoothing airflow
48. What is the primary function of an aircraft's inertial reference system (IRS)?
    1.   To provide attitude and heading information
    2.   To monitor engine performance parameters
    3.   To control cabin pressurization
49. DME works on the frequency of ?
    1.   HF
    2.   UHF
    3.   VHF
50. GPS uses ?
    1.   uses 21 satellites equally spaced around 7 orbits
    2.   uses 18 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
    3.   uses 24 satellites equally spaced around 6 orbits
51. Decca navigation uses ?
    1.   LF
    2.   HF
    3.   VHF
52. Earth rate is approximately ?
    1.   5 degrees per hour
    2.   15 degrees per hour
    3.   84 degrees per hour
53. The localizer deviation signal for the flight director comes from the ?
    1.   flight director computer
    2.   VHF comm system
    3.   VHF nav system
54. In aircraft electrical systems, what is the purpose of a bus tie breaker?
    1.   To connect or isolate different electrical buses
    2.   To protect circuits from overcurrent
    3.   To convert AC power to DC power
55. What is the function of a pitot tube in an aircraft?
    1.   To measure air temperature
    2.   To provide altitude information
    3.   To determine airspeed
56. In an AC generation system, the frequency and phase rotation ?
    1.   must be out of phase prior to paralleling
    2.   is of no consequence after paralleling
    3.   must be synchronized prior to paralleling
57. In an aircraft oxygen system, what type of oxygen is used for emergency supply?
    1.   Liquid oxygen
    2.   Gaseous oxygen stored in cylinders
    3.   Chemically generated oxygen
58. What is the primary purpose of a fire detection system in an aircraft?
    1.   To provide a warning to the crew in case of fire
    2.   To automatically extinguish fires
    3.   To isolate affected electrical circuits
59. How is RAT driven ?
    1.   Fan
    2.   Compressor
    3.   Airstream
60. What is the function of a torque link in a landing gear assembly?
    1.   To prevent wheel shimmy and maintain wheel alignment
    2.   To absorb landing impact forces
    3.   To reduce hydraulic pressure in the gear system
61. Zener diodes are for ?
    1.   rectification
    2.   voltage stabilization
    3.   voltage regulation
62. Which components within a generator control unit connects the output of the field power supply to the generator exciter?
    1.   Generator control relay
    2.   Generator line contactor
    3.   Generator power pilot relay
63. In aircraft avionics, what does the acronym "ELT" stand for?
    1.   Engine Load Transmitter
    2.   Electrical Load Tester
    3.   Emergency Locator Transmitter
64. Which side of the pilot is the collective?
    1.   Left
    2.   Right
    3.   In-between legs
65. Runway visual range in (RVR) is obtained by ?
    1.   information obtained the local Meteorological Office
    2.   three sets of instruments at the side of the runway
    3.   one set of instruments the threshold of the runway
66. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes ?
    1.   constant current and varying voltage
    2.   constant voltage and varying current
    3.   constant current and constant voltage
67. A constant speed drive unit has a warning light indication ?
    1.   for low speed
    2.   for low oil pressure
    3.   for when it is disconnected from the generator
68. The purpose of an inverter is to convert ?
    1.   DC to AC
    2.   AC to DC
    3.   AC to a higher frequency AC
69. Which modes are incompatible ?
    1.   HDG + V/S HOLD
    2.   VOR + ALTITUDE HOLD
    3.   G/S + ALTITUDE HOLD
70. To prevent corrosion at the terminals of a lead-acid battery ?
    1.   copper connectors are used
    2.   petroleum jelly may be applied to the connections
    3.   the connectors may be painted
71. The output from an AC generator is taken from ?
    1.   slip rings
    2.   slip rings via commutator
    3.   connections on the stator
72. When connecting aircraft batteries, the last lead to connect is the ?
    1.   positive earth
    2.   negative
    3.   positive
73. An over station sensor (OSS) is triggered by ?
    1.   rate of change of radio deviation
    2.   rate of change of course
    3.   measured radio deviation
74. The ratio between apparent power and true power is the ?
    1.   efficiency
    2.   power factor
    3.   power rating
75. Apparent power is measured in ?
    1.   Volt Amps
    2.   Kilovolts
    3.   Watts
76. Cargo and baggage compartments in which a fire is completely confined come under ?
    1.   Class B
    2.   Class C
    3.   Class D
77. Aircraft emergency escape slides are usually pressurised with ?
    1.   Oxygen
    2.   Co2
    3.   Helium
78. Synchronisation circuits in autopilots ensure?
    1.   that the aircraft will always be returned to straight and level flight when the autopilot is engaged
    2.   that the trim indicators will read zero prior to engagement
    3.   that the autopilot control circuits are at zero demand conditions engagement
79. Megaphones must be stowed so they can withstand an inertia force of ?
    1.   9g
    2.   12g
    3.   15g
80. Cargo nets are manufactured from ?
    1.   nylon
    2.   hessian
    3.   polypropylene
81. Toilet flush motor is protected from overheat by ?
    1.   water cooling
    2.   thermal protection
    3.   cooling fan on timer switch
82. The TCAS system ,Resolution Advisory RA ………… before a collision ?
    1.   30 - 45 seconds
    2.   50 - 60 seconds
    3.   20 - 30 seconds
83. The NSS Network Server System divided into ?
    1.   Four parts
    2.   Three parts
    3.   Two parts
84. The airplane Multipurpose Control and Display Units MCDU are used by maintenance crews to interface with the ?
    1.   ATC
    2.   ATIMS
    3.   Flight Warning Computers
85. An aural alert of Climb-Climb for TCAS II ?
    1.   Preventative
    2.   Corrective
    3.   Corrective and Preventative
86. The ARINC ………….. bus connects to the aircraft information management system (AIMS), which is the primary information management system for the aircraft ?
    1.   431
    2.   429
    3.   629
87. Lubricate oxygen connector threads using ?
    1.   Teflon tape
    2.   Hellerene
    3.   WD40
88. The systems are used to monitor various conditions in the passenger cabin ?
    1.   Cabin monitoring
    2.   Cabin Services System (CSS)
    3.   Cabin Mass Memory
89. Cylinders containing purified oxygen for breathing are painted ?
    1.   black with a white collar
    2.   black
    3.   white with a black collar
90. If the AIMS needs to send information back to that LRU, a second …………….. bus is required?
    1.   ARINC 629
    2.   ARINC 429
    3.   ARINC 729
91. An anti-balance tab is used ?
    1.   to give more feel to the controls
    2.   for trimming the aircraft
    3.   to relieve stick loads
92. Aircraft Full Duplex (AFDX) Ethernet data rate is?
    1.   12 kbps to 100kbps
    2.   up to 2 Mbps
    3.   up to 100 Mbps
93. What is the purpose of a wing flap on an aircraft?
    1.   To reduce the aircraft's speed during takeoff
    2.   To provide lateral stability
    3.   To increase lift and allow for steeper climb angles at lower speeds
94. Waste water drain masts are heated ……………... ?
    1.   Electrically
    2.   Either electrically or with warm pneumatic system air
    3.   With warm pneumatic system air
95. The water should be drained at least every …………….. and fresh water added to the system to prevent the growth of bacteria ?
    1.   7 days
    2.   5 days
    3.   3 days
96. To reduce the vacuum for the turn and bank indicators, _______ are included in both lines to these units ?
    1.   Three-way valves
    2.   Check valves
    3.   Needle valves
97. Pneumatic power is distributed through high pressure ___________ lines ?
    1.   Steel or carbon steel
    2.   litres/pounds
    3.   Steel or iron alloy
98. The cylinder of a portable oxygen set is made of ?
    1.   aluminium
    2.   alloy steel
    3.   stainless steel
99. Pressure breathing systems must be used at altitudes ?
    1.   above 40,000 ft
    2.   below 40,000 ft
    3.   above 30,000 ft
100. For high-pressure Pneumatic systems, air is usually stored in metal bottles, pressures ranging from _________ ?
     1.   1000 to 2000 PSI
     2.   1000 to 3000 PSI
     3.   1000 to 3500 PSI
101. The air contains the typical 21 percent of ?
     1.   Oxygen
     2.   Nitrogen
     3.   Argon
102. The life of an aircraft oxygen cylinder is ?
     1.   2 years
     2.   10 years
     3.   5 years
103. Landing gear attached to ____ structural members of the aircraft ?
     1.   Primary
     2.   Tertiary
     3.   Auxilary
104. Skis are used with the aircraft that land and takeoff from ?
     1.   Hard surface
     2.   Water
     3.   Snow
105. Which Type of sensor Returns a different voltage to a gear logic unit depending on the proximity of a conductive target to the switch ?
     1.   Radio sensor
     2.   Electromagnetic sensor
     3.   Infra red sensor
106. In a tire fabric usually nylon, sandwiched between two layers of rubber is called……?
     1.   Bead
     2.   Tread
     3.   3000 PSI
107. Which connector has a left hand thread ?
     1.   N2
     2.   Freon
     3.   O2
108. Wheel speed sensors are ?
     1.   Rectifires
     2.   Transducers
     3.   Diode
109. Anti icing of wing surfaces and engine inlet cowling on large aircrafts are carried out by ?
     1.   Bleed air
     2.   Electrical elements
     3.   Chemical spray
110. BITE test of WAI (wing ati ice) system is performed once in ?
     1.   After 1Week
     2.   24 hours
     3.   After 1 Month
111. Wing tip vortices are strongest when ?
     1.   flying high speed straight and level flight
     2.   flying slowly at high angles of attack
     3.   flying into a headwind
112. Emergency electronic equipment for the cabin is referred to in ?
     1.   JAR OPS subpart M
     2.   BCARs
     3.   Maintenance manual
113. In an Artificial Horizon, Erection Error is caused by ?
     1.   bottom lightness of inner gimbals
     2.   bottom heaviness of inner gimbals
     3.   displacement of erection control device
114. Machmeters work on ?
     1.   static
     2.   pitot
     3.   pitot and static
115. Emergency frequency is ?
     1.   125.5 Hz
     2.   121.5 Hz
     3.   123.5 Hz
116. On localiser approach the radio deviation signal is lost ?
     1.   aircraft flies off centre line on pre-set
        heading
     2.   the aircraft flies in a circle
     3.   aircraft flies heading with increasing drift angle
117. CAT 2 RVR limit is ?
     1.   1200 ft
     2.   10,000 ft
     3.   1000 ft
118. Glideslope deviation signals are ?
     1.   DC positive going only
     2.   AC phase sensitive
     3.   DC polarity sensitive
119. The purpose of a synchronising bus bar is ?
     1.   to allow monitoring and trimming from the flight deck
     2.   to enable two propeller systems to be synchronised
     3.   to monitor total current load
120. Battery charging procedures can be found in ATA ?
     1.   Chapter 24 Section 21
     2.   Chapter 31 Section 21
     3.   Chapter 24 Section 31
121. A water separator is located ?
     1.   downstream of heat exchanger
     2.   downstream of turbine
     3.   upstream of the turbine
122. The VHF aerial resistance and transmission line resistance is ?
     1.   20 ohms and 50 ohms respectively
     2.   20 ohms
     3.   50 ohms
123. A Master Warning is issued when ?
     1.   overspeed & low cabin altitude occurs
     2.   cargo smoke & low oil quantity occurs
     3.   engine fire & generator trip occurs
124. Random drift of a gyro is caused by ?
     1.   rotation of the earth
     2.   unbalance and bearing friction in the gyro
     3.   aircraft turning with an error in roll
125. If an aircraft is entering a turn to the left, what input would the aileron to rudder crossfeed be?
     1.   Right Rudder
     2.   Left Rudder
     3.   Both a & b
126. What is the bonding value between secondary structure?
     1.   1 ohm
     2.   0.5
     3.   Between 1Megohm and 500,000
127. The force exerted by a hydraulic cylinder is equal to ?
     1.   area * volume
     2.   pressure * stroke
     3.   area * pressure
128. The wavelengths associated with 300 to 512 MHz range from ?
     1.   one meter to 0.58 meters or 58 centimeters
     2.   one meter to 58 centimeters
     3.   one meter to 58 millimeters
129. Frequencies ranging from 3GHz-30 GHz belongs to _ _ _ radio frequency spectrum ?
     1.   SHF
     2.   VHF
     3.   UHF
130. Which system has the advantage of a more linear demodulation?
     1.   on off keying
     2.   amplitude modulation
     3.   synchronous detection
131. When radio waves strike an antenna, they are likewise converted into ?
     1.   electrical energy
     2.   electromagnetic
     3.   mechanical energy
132. In which waves the particles of the medium move parallel to the direction that the pulse moves ?
     1.   transverse
     2.   at acute angle
     3.   longitudinal
133. The transverse and longitudinal waves are also called ……………... Waves?
     1.   phonic
     2.   periodic
     3.   graphic
134. Frequency = ?
     1.   Velocity divided by Wavelength
     2.   Velocity multiplied by Wavelength
     3.   Wavelength divided by Velocity
135. Wave Period = ?
     1.   Frequency divided by 100
     2.   10 multiplied by Frequency
     3.   1 divided by Frequency
136. Radio wave amplitude, which is measured in ?
     1.   ohms
     2.   volts
     3.   ampere
137. What is the purpose of a turbofan engine's core?
     1.   To provide thrust by expelling gases from the combustion process
     2.   To store excess energy for later use during emergencies
     3.   To cool the engine and increase aerodynamic efficiency
138. What does an INS calculate on power up?
     1.   Last Known Longitude
     2.   Last Known Latitude
     3.   Last Known Longitude & Latitude
139. What is the purpose of the autopilot trim indication?
     1.   The voltage activity in the servo amp
     2.   Trim tab position
     3.   Control surface position
140. VHF band ranges from ...?
     1.   3 to 30 MHz
     2.   30 to 300 MHz
     3.   300 to 3 GHz
141. Emergency Locator Transmitter ELT transmits a digital signal every 50 seconds on a frequency of 406.025 MHz at -----?
     1.   5 watts for at least 24 hours
     2.   15 watts for at least 48 hours
     3.   10 watts for at least 30 days
142. Which system is in the band between 10 and 14 kHz ?
     1.   radio altimeter
     2.   tacan
     3.   omega
143. Which system has the ability to achieve a four mile accuracy when fixing a position ?
     1.   DME
     2.   OMEGA
     3.   TACAN
144. What is the function of the aircraft’s auxiliary power unit (APU)?
     1.   To adjust engine fuel flow
     2.   To provide cooling to the cabin during flight
     3.   To provide backup electrical power when engines are off
145. Angle of Attack is the angle between cord line and?
     1.   horizontal axis
     2.   tip path plane
     3.   relative air flow
146. What is a slot used for ?
     1.   To reinforce the boundary layer
     2.   Increased angle of attack during
        approach
     3.   Increase the speed of the airflow
147. What is the Speed of an ARINC 429 system?
     1.   2.3 - 23 Mhz
     2.   2 - 6 GHz
     3.   100 KHz
148. A Doppler Navigation System uses the Doppler principle to measure an aircraft's ?
     1.   drift
     2.   ground speed
     3.   ground speed & drift
149. The GPS space system each segment planes consists of satellites ?
     1.   3 satellites
     2.   4 satellites
     3.   6 satellites
150. The potential for multiple final approach paths, glideslope angles, and missed approach paths for a given runway is the feature of …….system ?
     1.   GLS
     2.   IRS
     3.   DME
151. When more than two wheels are attached to a landing gear strut, the attaching mechanism is known as ?
     1.   Master
     2.   Group
     3.   Bogie
152. The Earth atmosphere has a mass of about ?
     1.   3×1018 kg
     2.   5×1018 kg
     3.   5×1020 kg
153. Atmospheric pressure is measured with an instrument called ?
     1.   manometer
     2.   thermometer
     3.   barometer
154. When the wheel of the landing gear wheel away from the longitudinal axis ?
     1.   Tow in
     2.   Aligned
     3.   Tow out
155. Ratio meter type fuel quantity indicator the …………. in the tank moves a connecting arm to the wiper on a variable resistor in the tank unit ?
     1.   movement of a float
     2.   movement of a capacitor plates
     3.   movement of a potentiometer
156. GPS system Consists of how many satellites ?
     1.   18
     2.   20
     3.   24
157. The upper chamber of shock strut is always filled with ?
     1.   Hydraulic fluid
     2.   Air / nitrogen
     3.   Fuel
158. The purpose of ______________ is to alert the flight crew about the existence of an unsafe condition when aircraft is near the terrain?
     1.   GPWS
     2.   WASS
     3.   GPS
159. Marker beacons are the final radio transmitters used in the ...... system?
     1.   MWS
     2.   GNSS
     3.   ILS
160. When GPWS mode 2B is activated, the first alert comes with aural message ?
     1.   Too low gear
     2.   Terrain-Terrain
     3.   Takeoff
161. Amber INOP light is illuminated when the computer or input signal failure is detected or a___________is being performed?
     1.   self-test
     2.   pitch up
     3.   right or left turn
162. GPS system has Consists of how many active or operational satellites?
     1.   24
     2.   21
     3.   18
163. When a conductor (wire) is moved through a magnetic field ?
     1.   An EMF is produced in the conductor
     2.   Impedence is produced in the conductor
     3.   A high resistance to applied voltage is produced in the conductor
164. The digital flight control system (DFCS) is a ……?
     1.   Three axis
     2.   One axis
     3.   Two axis
165. A thermocouple depends on the ?
     1.   Hot gases rise
     2.   Air temperature rise
     3.   Rate of temperature rise
166. When the aircraft reaches its critical Mach number, shock waves may develop ?
     1.   over the wing
     2.   aft of the wing
     3.   under the wing
167. After .... seconds, if the probe vibration does not return to its normal rate, a fault is enunciated and the heater is turned OFF ?
     1.   15 sec
     2.   25 sec
     3.   35 sec
168. It is the process of producing a voltage (EMF) by moving a magnetic field in relationship to a conductor?
     1.   Trasforming
     2.   Self induction
     3.   Electromagnetic induction
169. The most common types of extinguishers used in cabin are ?
     1.   Halon 1215 or water
     2.   Halon 1211 and water
     3.   Halon 1232 not water
170. Which of thses hold the deicing boot tight to the leading edge surfaces when deflated ?
     1.   Suction
     2.   Pressure
     3.   Ram air
171. It is the most common high-lift device, a movable portion of the wing that can be lowered to produce extra lift?
     1.   spoiler
     2.   lift dumper
     3.   flap
172. When the autopilot is in the ALT mode with the ATS engaged, it results in the activation of the which mode?
     1.   Vertical Speed Mode (V/S)
     2.   SPEED/MACH mode
     3.   VNAV
173. The light unit is always mounted at the extreme tip of the right wing ?
     1.   white
     2.   red
     3.   green
174. In anti-collision light the mirrors rotate in an arc, and the resulting flash rate is between ______cycles per _____?
     1.   40 and 100 per minute
     2.   50 and 80 per minute
     3.   40 and 100 per second
175. Which of current systems had been the main design considerations and obstacles for latest generation IFE ?
     1.   Bandwidth only
     2.   Data capacity only
     3.   Bandwidth and Data capacity
176. A typical micron-type filter assembly utilizes an element made of specially treated paper that is formed in ---------convolutions (wrinkles)?
     1.   Horizontal
     2.   Vertical
     3.   Zigzag
177. What is the primary function of an aircraft’s hydraulic system?
     1.   To cool the engine during high-speed flight
     2.   To control the aircraft’s speed
     3.   To provide power for flight control surfaces and landing gear
178. Vapor cycle air conditioning systems are often used on _______________ aircraft?
     1.   reciprocating aircraft
     2.   turbine aircraft
     3.   military aircraft
179. At sea level, mercury is forced up into the column approximately………?
     1.   29.92 millimeter
     2.   29.92 inches
     3.   92.29 inches
180. What is the purpose of a stall warning system in an aircraft?
     1.   To automatically adjust engine thrust to prevent stalls
     2.   To improve aerodynamic efficiency during flight
     3.   To alert the pilot when the aircraft approaches a stall condition
181. What is the purpose of a static discharger on an aircraft?
     1.   To dissipate accumulated static electricity into the atmosphere
     2.   To improve aerodynamic efficiency
     3.   To reduce radio communication interference
182. Atmospheric pressure, at sea level is ……?
     1.   16.7 pounds
     2.   14.7 cubic feet
     3.   14.7 psi

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