Module -10 Final Practice Exam (Aviation Legislation 40 Questions 50 Mints)

Module - 10 (Aviation Legislation)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. A register of airlines operating on an AOC is maintained by the ?
   1.   ICAO
   2.   FAA
   3.   CAA
2. A Part-145 approval covers?
   1.   the major part of the organisation
   2.   base maintenance
   3.   only line maintenance
3. Documents to be carried on a specific aircraft for a specific purpose is given in ?
   1.   JAR-OPS
   2.   BCAR Section A and B
   3.   AOC
4. To what does a B1-3 License apply to ?
   1.   Light aircraft with piston engines
   2.   Helicopter with turbines, their engines, airframes and electrics
   3.   Helicopters with piston engines, their engines, airframes and electrics
5. Where would you find the requirements and the syllabus for a maintenance license ?
   1.   EASA Part-147
   2.   EASA Part-145
   3.   EASA Part-66
6. EASA Form 26 is ?
   1.   the application for a part-66 licence
   2.   the application for an extension to a part-66 licence
   3.   the part-66 licence itself
7. Who is responsible for the control and issue of engineers licenses ?
   1.   JAA
   2.   CAA
   3.   EASA
8. EASA IR Part-66 applies to aircraft ?
   1.   above 5700 kg only
   2.   below 5700 kg only
   3.   above and below 5700 kg
9. An EASA IR B1.2 engineer can certify ?
   1.   aircraft - piston engined
   2.   aircraft -both turbine and piston engined
   3.   aircraft - turbine engined
10. A Part-145 company is required to be headed by ?
    1.   a technical director
    2.   a licensed engineer
    3.   an accountable manager
11. The responsibility for reporting incidents and occurrences during a flight rests with the ?
    1.   aircraft commander
    2.   engineer clearing the tech log
    3.   air stewards
12. After a mandatory inspection has been carried out by a Licensed Engineer, what is issued ?
    1.   A Certificate of Maintenance Review
    2.   A Flight Release Certificate
    3.   Certificate of Release to Service
13. Part-66 certifying staff must be ?
    
    
    1.   There is no Age limitation
    2.   not less than 21 years of age
    3.   not less than 18 years of age
14. JAR OPS subpart J covers ?
    1.   Instruments and equipment
    2.   Mass and balance
    3.   Maintenance
15. What is the minimum legal decision height for Cat I auto landing?
    1.   200 to 300 ft
    2.   100 to 200 ft
    3.   400 to 500 ft
16. A Certificate of design is raisedl ?
    
    1.   by the CAA
    2.   by the operator
    3.   by the manufacturer
17. An EASA Part-145 organisation may classify repairs as major or minor if approved in accordance with ?
    1.   EASA Part-145
    2.   EASA Part-21 subpart J
    3.   JAR OPS subpart M
18. What Certificate must an Operator have who flies for public transport and cargo carrying ?
    
    1.   Air Operators Certificate
    2.   Air Transport Certificate
    3.   Air Navigation Certificate
19. The period of validity of an EASA C of A is ?
    1.   As stated on certificate
    2.   36 months
    3.   Indefinite
20. An aircraft Radio License has to be renewed ?
    
    1.   only on change of aircraft ownership
    2.   every five years
    3.   every three years
21. The 'Threshold Time' for an ETOPS approved aircraft is ?
    
    1.   120 minutes
    2.   90 minutes
    3.   60 minutes
22. A Certificate of Maintenance Review for an aircraft over 2,730 kg has a maximum period of validity of?
    
    1.   6 months
    2.   4 months
    3.   1 year
23. An aircraft operators MEL ?
    
    1.   must be the same as the aircrafts MMEL
    2.   can be less restrictive than the aircrafts MMEL
    3.   can be more restrictive than the aircrafts MMEL
24. Fuel Flow results are entered in the ?
    
    1.   The Fuel Uplift column of the Tech Log
    2.   Aircraft Log Book
    3.   Engine Log Book
25. Airworthiness Notices 3 and 10 deal with ?
    
    1.   Maintenance
    2.   Approvals
    3.   Licensing
26. What documents should be carried when flying an aircraft overseas for the purpose of exportation?
    1.   C of A for export, a C of A for Ferry Purposes and a C of R
    2.   C of A for export, a ferry certificate and a permit to fly
    3.   C of A for export, a C of R, and a validation certificate
27. A glider being used privately, and not crossing boundaries of countries ?
    1.   Must have a C of A
    2.   Does not need a C of A
    3.   Must have a Permit to Fly
28. Information on Air Operators Certification is to be found in ANO ?
    1.   Article 6
    2.   Article 10
    3.   Article 9
29. An airline's MEL contains an additional note (M). This indicates a ?
    1.   Modified component or system
    2.   Mandatory operational restrictions
    3.   Maintenance requirements
30. What does MSDS stand for ?
    1.   Metal Surface Dimension Sector
    2.   Material Safety Data Sheet
    3.   Maximum Structural Design System
31. CAP 360 relates to ?
    
    1.   EASA aircraft only
    2.   Crop spraying aircraft only
    3.   Public Transport aircraft
32. A service bulletin contains ?
    1.   a list of maintenance tasks to be carried out on a particular aircraft
    2.   information concerning the airworthiness of aircraft and are distributed by the CAA
    3.   a detailed description of a problem and corrective action to be taken
33. The telecommunications log book is considered to be part of the ?
    1.   Radio Licence
    2.   Public Address Licence
    3.   Radio approved document
34. Under EASA how long does the Technical Log have to be retained ?
    1.   2 years after the last entry
    2.   3 years after the last entry
    3.   5 years after the last entry
35. Aircraft components released for service from an EASA Part-M approved organization must do so under cover of ?
    1.   EASA Form 10
    2.   Form 268A
    3.   EASA Form 1
36. Who is responsible for making a recommendation for a C of A renewal ?
    1.   The type rated engineer
    2.   The approved organization maintaining the aircraft to an Approved Maintenance Schedule
    3.   The CAA Surveyor
37. How many copies of the Certificate of Registration are required ?
    1.   One copy for the owner/operator
    2.   Two copies, one for the owner, one for the aircraft
    3.   Two copies, one for the flight manual, one for the filing system
38. A Noise Certificate is a requirement of ?
    1.   IR Part-M
    2.   JAR OPS
    3.   IR Part-21
39. A permit to fly is valid ?
    1.   Until the date stated on it
    2.   For 12 months
    3.   Only for evaluating a modification
40. The details of design of a particular aircraft can be found where?
    1.   The Declaration of Design and Performance
    2.   The Maintenance Manual
    3.   EASA Certification Specification 25

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Module - 06 Final Practice Exam Test (Materials & Hardware)

Module - 06 (Materials & Hardware)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. What temperature would steel be tempered at?
   1.   At the annealing temperature
   2.   Above the annealing temperature
   3.   Below the annealing temperature
2. At normal temperatures HC steel is harder because?
   1.   it has more austenite
   2.   of the % of carbon in the granules
   3.   it has less austenite
3. Nitriding is ?
   1.   case hardening
   2.   anodising
   3.   tempering
4. The annealing process on steel is required sometimes as it ?
   1.   provides a corrosion resistant layer that prevents oxidation
   2.   relieves internal stress suffered after engineering processes
   3.   allows the material a greater stress per unit area
5. The properties of pearlitic metal are that it is both ?
   1.   strong but too and hard and brittle
   2.   soft and weak
   3.   strong without being brittle
6. The socket section of an AN/MS connector is normally installed on ?
   1.   either side of a circuit (makes no difference)
   2.   the ground side of the circuit
   3.   the power supply side of the circuit
7. When installing coaxial cable, it should be secured along its entire length ?
   1.   at 1-foot intervals
   2.   at 2-foot intervals
   3.   wherever the cable sags
8. Solution treatment after manufacturers have performed it once can be carried out a further ?
   1.   3 times
   2.   1 time
   3.   2 times
9. When buffing surface of Aluminium Alloy, what material are you removing?
   1.   Oxide layer
   2.   Aluminium
   3.   Alloy
10. Why are aluminium alloys used on aircraft, instead of pure aluminium?
    1.   Lighter
    2.   Corrosion resistant
    3.   Stronger
11. The process of forming a pure layer of aluminium over an aluminium alloy is ?
    1.   cladding
    2.   electroplating
    3.   metalizing
12. Cast iron is ?
    The common bonding material for Tungsten Carbide is ?
    1.   very malleable
    2.   tough
    3.   heavy and brittle
13. What is a Rockwell tester used for ?
    aircraft will
    
    1.   Tensile Testing
    2.   Hardness Testing
    3.   Fatigue Testing
14. The symbol 'W' on a material indicates ?
    1.   it is for use on aircraft mainplanes only
    2.   it has been solution treated and will respond effectively to precipitation treatment
    3.   it is for workshop use only
15. Composition of silver solder is ?
    1.   tin, lead, silver and antimony
    2.   tin, lead and silver
    3.   tin and lead
16. Precipitation treating makes the metal ?
    
    1.   Precipitation treating makes the metal
    2.   less strong and hard
    3.   harder, stronger and less ductile
17. The time between removal from heat treatment furnace and quenching must be not more than ?
    1.   05 seconds
    2.   10 seconds
    3.   15 seconds
18. The metal which must not be heated in a salt bath is?
    
    1.   magnesium alloy
    2.   duralumin
    3.   rivets made of alclad
19. A material containing approximately 66% nickel and 33% copper is known as ?
    1.   Nimonic
    2.   Invar
    3.   Monel metal
20. Hooke's law states that, within the elastic region, elastic strain is?
    
    1.   directly proportional to stress
    2.   directly opposite to stress
    3.   indirectly proportional to stress
21. What type of a test involves stretching material until it breaks ?
    
    1.   Fatigue Testing
    2.   Hardness Testing
    3.   Tensile Testing
22. Two parts of the adhesive process are?
    
    1.   wetting and gripping
    2.   wetting and setting
    3.   spreading and setting
23. Polyester resin and glass fibre cloth, becomes ?
    
    1.   PTFE
    2.   PVC
    3.   GRP
24. A category of plastic material that is capable of softening or flowing when reheated is described as a ?
    
    1.   thermoset
    2.   thermoplastic
    3.   thermocure
25. The classification of high tensile strength fibreglass used in aircraft structures is ?
    
    1.   G-glass
    2.   E-glass
    3.   S-glass
26. Which of the following are generally characteristic of aramid fibre (Kevlar) composites ?
    1.   High tensile strength, stiffness and ability to conduct electricity
    2.   Flexibility, stiffness and corrosive effect in contact with aluminium
    3.   High tensile strength and flexibility
27. What tests are done on adhesive joints ?
    1.   Impact and peel
    2.   Shear and peel
    3.   Impact and shear
28. If you increase the amount of catalyst in a resin mixture ?
    1.   the pot life will be decreased
    2.   the material will become weaker
    3.   the material will become stronger
29. What is the largest hole in honeycomb repairable with microballoons ?
    1.   2.54 inches
    2.   2.54 mm
    3.   2.54 cm
30. What does MSDS stand for ?
    1.   Metal Surface Dimension Sector
    2.   Material Safety Data Sheet
    3.   Maximum Structural Design System
31. With what would you check the bonded joints of a wooden aircraft structure ?
    
    1.   A screwdriver
    2.   A plastic strip
    3.   A feeler gauge
32. Replacement of a wooden spar is ?
    1.   only permitted by the manufacturer
    2.   a minor repair
    3.   a major repair
33. A surface patch to a plywood structure may be a large as ?
    1.   50 inch perimeter
    2.   50 inch diameter
    3.   50 sq.inch area
34. The standard wood type for aircraft wood structures is ?
    1.   douglas fir
    2.   spruce
    3.   pine
35. Red heart and purple heart ?
    1.   are harmless natural defects in wood
    2.   are types of hard-wood
    3.   are forms of decay in wood
36. A faint line running across the grain of a wood spar generally indicates ?
    1.   shear failure
    2.   compression failure
    3.   decay
37. Lacing cord used on aircraft fabric covering must have a minimum breaking strength of ?
    1.   40 lb
    2.   80 lb
    3.   120 lb
38. Aircraft fabric lacing cord is reinforced with ?
    1.   lanolin
    2.   epoxy
    3.   wax
39. Which of the following is true regarding aircraft dope type ?
    1.   Either type of dope may be applied over the top of any type of dope
    2.   Butyrate dope may be applied over the top of nitrate dope
    3.   Nitrate dope may be applied over the top of butyrate dope
40. A retarder is added to aircraft dope to ?
    1.   produce a smoother finish
    2.   to retard the application time
    3.   to extend the shelf life
41. What width of finishing tape should be used on a tear in a fabric cover which is 10 inches long ?
    1.   4 inches
    2.   6 inches
    3.   2 inches
42. The threads per inch of Grade 'A' aircraft fabric is ?
    1.   60-64
    2.   110-115
    3.   80-84
43. Corrosion caused by electrolytic action is the result of ?
    1.   excessive anodization
    2.   contact between two unlike metals
    3.   the wrong quenching agent
44. Exfoliation corrosion is sometimes referred to as ?
    1.   sub-surface corrosion
    2.   filiform corrosion
    3.   layer corrosion
45. Which is the following correct statement ?
    1.   Selenious acid is used for the re-protection of aluminium alloys
    2.   The chemical test for bronze is nitric acid which produces a white precipitate
    3.   All corrosion is a chemical action
46. Corrosion control begins at the ?
    1.   production stage
    2.   manufacturing stage
    3.   design stage
47. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of ?
    1.   excessive anodization
    2.   contact between two unlike metals
    3.   excessive etching
48. What are the signs of fretting corrosion ?
    1.   Black powder or cocoa staining
    2.   Intergranular cracking
    3.   Flaking
49. Magnesium alloy components are protected by ?
    1.   an electro process
    2.   a chemical process
    3.   a painted process
50. Corrosion at the grain boundaries is called ?
    1.   filiform
    2.   fretting
    3.   intergrannular
51. Anti-corrosion treatment used on Magnesium is ?
    1.   chromating
    2.   electro-plating
    3.   phosphating
52. The pitch of a screw thread is ?
    1.   2 * crest to root
    2.   crest to root
    3.   crest to crest
53. A metric screw thread angle is ?
    1.   37 °
    2.   57 °
    3.   60 °
54. What sort of surface treatment would you find on a magnesium casting ?
    1.   Chromating
    2.   Phosphating
    3.   Anodizing
55. Studs which have a size larger thread at one end are called ?
    1.   plain studs
    2.   shouldered studs
    3.   stepped studs
56. A dowel will take what loads ?
    1.   torsion
    2.   tensile
    3.   shear
57. UNF means ?
    1.   union national fine
    2.   unified fine
    3.   united nations fine
58. Aircraft bolts are usually manufactured with a ?
    1.   class 3 fit for the threads
    2.   class 2 fit for the threads
    3.   class 1 fit for the threads
59. A spring type washer when used on an aluminium component must be used ?
    1.   with a tab washer
    2.   by itself
    3.   with a plain washer
60. Taper pins are subject to what loads ?
    1.   Shear
    2.   Compressive
    3.   Tensile
61. How is a British aluminium rivet identified ?
    1.   Violet anodic finish
    2.   Natural anodised finish
    3.   Black anodic finish
62. An aluminium alloy L37 rivet identification is ?
    1.   D embossed
    2.   O embossed
    3.   X embossed
63. The length of solid rivets is in graduations of ?
    1.   1/4 inch
    2.   1/8 inch
    3.   1/16 inch
64. Countersunk rivets have two angles of countersink, these are ?
    1.   100 - 115 degrees
    2.   125 - 135 degrees
    3.   100 -160 degrees
65. A 'HUCK' rivet is similar in design to a ?
    1.   dome head rivet
    2.   blind rivet
    3.   cherry rivet
66. What type loads cause the most rivet failures ?
    1.   Bearing
    2.   Head
    3.   Shear
67. How are flexible hoses categorised ?
    1.   By diameter
    2.   By maximum pressure
    3.   By length
68. How would you test a hydraulic hose ?
    1.   Pressure test 1.5 * working pressure
    2.   Pressure test 2.0 * working pressure
    3.   Pressure test 1.0 * working pressure
69. Which material is a hydraulic fluid hose made from ?
    1.   Rubber
    2.   Butyl
    3.   Teflon
70. A 0.5 in. diameter pipe is to be joined using standard nuts and fittings. What coupling would you use ?
    1.   AN8-8852-2
    2.   AN8-8852-8
    3.   AN8-8852-1
71. A self aligning bearing is a ?
    1.   angular bearing
    2.   precision bearing
    3.   radial bearing
72. What type of gear would be used on a propeller reduction gearbox ?
    1.   Bevel
    2.   Epicyclic
    3.   Split epicyclic

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