Module 07 Maintenance Practices 100 Important Sentences for Revision

1. Workshop Safety and Practices

1. Safety is the first priority in any maintenance environment.
2. Always wear Personal Protective Equipment (PPE).
3. Smoking is prohibited in hangars and workshops.
4. Ensure fire extinguishers are available and serviceable.
5. Oxygen and fuel sources must be stored separately.
6. Use correct tools for the job to prevent damage or injury.
7. Keep the workplace clean and free of oil spills.
8. Never use compressed air to clean clothing or skin.
9. All electrical tools must be properly grounded.
10. Always follow the aircraft maintenance manual (AMM).

2. Hand Tools

11. Use spanners and wrenches that fit the nut or bolt exactly.
12. Never use pliers as a wrench.
13. Screwdrivers must fit the screw slot properly.
14. Torque wrenches apply precise tightening force.
15. Files should only be used on materials softer than the file.
16. Hammers are selected based on material type.
17. Micrometers measure dimensions with high accuracy.
18. Vernier calipers are used for external, internal, and depth measurements.
19. Dial indicators check surface alignment and runout.
20. Always return tools to their designated storage after use.

3. Torque and Locking Devices

21. The twisting force applied to a fastener is called torque.
22. Over-torquing can damage threads or bolts.
23. Under-torquing can lead to loosening during vibration.
24. Torque wrenches must be calibrated regularly.
25. Always tighten bolts using the manufacturer’s torque values.
26. Safety wire prevents loosening of critical fasteners.
27. Locknuts provide self-locking through friction or inserts.
28. Cotter pins secure bolts and nuts under vibration.
29. Tab washers lock nuts in place by bending a tab.
30. Torque seal paint helps identify loosened fasteners.

4. Aircraft Jacks and Supports

31. Aircraft jacking must be performed on level ground.
32. Always consult the AMM for jacking points.
33. Use the correct number of jacks as specified.
34. Safety stands must be positioned under the aircraft.
35. Never work under an aircraft supported only by jacks.
36. Use chocks on wheels not being lifted.
37. Hydraulic jacks must be inspected before use.
38. Ensure all personnel are clear before jacking.
39. Check for hydraulic leaks during operation.
40. Lower the aircraft slowly and evenly after maintenance.

5. Lifting, Rigging, and Weighing

41. Use slings and hoists rated for the load.
42. Never stand under a suspended load.
43. Center of gravity must be considered when lifting.
44. Rigging ensures control systems move correctly.
45. Always use rigging pins as per manual instructions.
46. Cable tensions vary with temperature.
47. Weighing determines the aircraft’s center of gravity.
48. Use calibrated scales for weighing.
49. Perform weighing indoors to avoid wind effects.
50. Record all weight and balance data accurately.

6. Aircraft Structures and Repairs

51. Aircraft structures include fuselage, wings, and empennage.
52. Fuselages are built using monocoque or semi-monocoque design.
53. Skin repairs must maintain aerodynamic smoothness.
54. Riveted joints are the most common structural fasteners.
55. Dents and cracks must be inspected as per limits.
56. Corrosion must be removed and treated immediately.
57. Doublers and patches restore structural strength.
58. Sheet metal bending must avoid cracking.
59. Drill holes at right angles to the surface.
60. Always deburr drilled holes to prevent stress points.

7. Control Cable Systems

61. Aircraft control cables transmit movement from cockpit to control surfaces.
62. Stainless steel is commonly used for control cables.
63. Cable tension changes with temperature.
64. Pulley alignment ensures smooth operation.
65. Cable guards prevent chafing and wear.
66. Turnbuckles are used to adjust tension.
67. Safety wire or clips secure turnbuckles.
68. Replace cables showing broken strands or corrosion.
69. Check for correct cable routing and clearance.
70. Lubricate cables as recommended.

8. Bearings and Lubrication

71. Bearings reduce friction between moving parts.
72. Ball bearings are used for radial loads.
73. Roller bearings are used for heavier loads.
74. Plain bearings depend on lubrication.
75. Bearing clearance must be within limits.
76. Always clean bearings with approved solvent.
77. Never spin bearings with compressed air.
78. Use correct type and grade of lubricant.
79. Grease reduces friction and prevents corrosion.
80. Over-greasing can cause overheating.

9. Non-Destructive Testing (NDT)

81. Visual inspection is the simplest NDT method.
82. Dye penetrant detects surface cracks in non-porous materials.
83. Magnetic particle testing detects surface cracks in ferrous metals.
84. Eddy current detects cracks without removing paint.
85. Ultrasonic testing identifies internal flaws using sound waves.
86. Radiography uses X-rays or gamma rays for internal inspection.
87. NDT must be done by certified personnel.
88. Always record NDT results in aircraft maintenance records.
89. Defects must be evaluated according to limits.
90. Repeat NDT after major repairs.

10. Aircraft Handling and Storage

91. Use approved towing equipment for aircraft movement.
92. Always have a qualified person in the cockpit during towing.
93. Install control locks when the aircraft is parked.
94. Use wheel chocks to prevent movement.
95. Use covers for pitot tubes, engines, and static ports.
96. Drain fuel tanks before long-term storage.
97. Lubricate moving parts before storage.
98. Record all preservation work in aircraft logbooks.
99. Dehumidifiers prevent corrosion during storage.
100. Always follow manufacturer procedures for aircraft handling

 

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Module 05 Digital Techniques 100 Important Sentences for Revision

1. Basics of Digital Systems

1. Digital systems work with discrete values, usually 0 and 1.
2. Analog systems work with continuous values.
3. Binary number system is used in all digital circuits.
4. A bit is a binary digit, either 0 or 1.
5. A byte consists of 8 bits.
6. Nibble is a group of 4 bits.
7. Binary numbers are converted to decimal for interpretation.
8. The octal number system uses base 8.
9. The hexadecimal system uses base 16.
10. Hexadecimal is often used in computer memory addressing.

2. Logic Gates

11. Logic gates perform basic logic operations.
12. AND gate output is 1 only if all inputs are 1.
13. OR gate output is 1 if any input is 1.
14. NOT gate inverts the input signal.
15. NAND gate output is opposite of AND gate.
16. NOR gate output is opposite of OR gate.
17. XOR gate output is 1 when inputs are different.
18. XNOR gate output is 1 when inputs are the same.
19. Truth tables show input-output logic relationships.
20. Boolean algebra simplifies digital circuits.

3. Number Systems and Codes

21. Binary addition follows 1+1 = 10 rule.
22. Binary subtraction follows 10−1 = 1 rule.
23. BCD stands for Binary-Coded Decimal.
24. ASCII code represents letters and numbers in computers.
25. Parity bits are used for error detection.
26. Even parity means total number of 1s is even.
27. Odd parity means total number of 1s is odd.
28. Gray code changes only one bit between adjacent numbers.
29. Excess-3 code is used in digital counters.
30. Codes help reduce data transmission errors.

4. Logic Circuits

31. Combinational logic depends only on current inputs.
32. Sequential logic depends on current and past inputs.
33. Flip-flops store one bit of data.
34. SR flip-flop has Set and Reset inputs.
35. JK flip-flop eliminates invalid states.
36. D flip-flop transfers input at clock edge.
37. T flip-flop toggles its state when triggered.
38. Latches are used for temporary data storage.
39. Counters count pulses in digital circuits.
40. Shift registers move data in serial or parallel form.

5. Microprocessors and Computers

41. A microprocessor is the brain of a digital system.
42. Microprocessor performs arithmetic and logic operations.
43. CPU stands for Central Processing Unit.
44. CPU includes ALU, control unit, and registers.
45. ALU stands for Arithmetic Logic Unit.
46. Memory stores data and instructions.
47. RAM is volatile memory that loses data when power is off.
48. ROM is non-volatile memory that retains data permanently.
49. EEPROM can be electrically erased and reprogrammed.
50. Cache memory speeds up processor operations.

6. Computer Systems

51. Hardware includes physical components like CPU, keyboard, and monitor.
52. Software is a set of instructions for hardware.
53. Operating system manages computer resources.
54. BIOS stands for Basic Input Output System.
55. Input devices include keyboard, mouse, and scanner.
56. Output devices include monitor and printer.
57. Storage devices include hard drive, SSD, and USB.
58. Data bus carries data between components.
59. Address bus carries memory addresses.
60. Control bus manages operation timing and control signals.

7. Digital Data Transmission

61. Data transmission can be serial or parallel.
62. In serial transmission, bits are sent one after another.
63. In parallel transmission, multiple bits are sent simultaneously.
64. Synchronous transmission uses a clock signal.
65. Asynchronous transmission uses start and stop bits.
66. Baud rate defines number of signal changes per second.
67. Modulation converts digital data to analog signals.
68. Demodulation converts analog signal back to digital.
69. Multiplexing allows multiple signals on one channel.
70. Demultiplexing separates combined signals.

8. Aircraft Digital Systems

71. Modern aircraft use digital avionics for precision and reliability.
72. ADC converts analog signals to digital form.
73. DAC converts digital signals to analog form.
74. ARINC 429 is a common digital data bus in aircraft.
75. ARINC 429 uses one-way transmission and two wires.
76. ARINC 629 allows multiple transmitters on one bus.
77. MIL-STD-1553 is used in military aircraft.
78. Digital data buses reduce wiring complexity.
79. Redundancy ensures system reliability in avionics.
80. EFIS displays flight data on LCD or CRT screens.

9. Instrument Systems

81. Digital instruments replace traditional mechanical gauges.
82. ADCs are used in digital flight data systems.
83. Flight Data Recorder (FDR) stores aircraft data continuously.
84. Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) stores crew communications.
85. Digital Air Data Computer (ADC) calculates altitude and airspeed.
86. Attitude and Heading Reference System (AHRS) provides aircraft attitude.
87. Inertial Reference System (IRS) uses accelerometers and gyros.
88. Gyros sense angular rotation.
89. Accelerometers sense linear acceleration.
90. Glass cockpit integrates multiple displays into one system.

10. Safety, Maintenance, and Testing

91. Static electricity can damage electronic circuits.
92. Always use anti-static wrist straps when handling components.
93. Grounding prevents electrostatic discharge (ESD) damage.
94. Continuity testing checks complete electrical paths.
95. Insulation testing ensures isolation between circuits.
96. Logic probes test digital high or low states.
97. Oscilloscopes display voltage over time.
98. Multi meters measure voltage, current, and resistance.
99. Built-in Test Equipment (BITE) detects faults automatically.
100. Regular calibration ensures accurate electronic readings.

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Module -7 Final Practice Exam (Maintenance Practices 80 Questions 100 Mints)

 

Module -7 (Maintenance Practice)

Final Practice Exam Test

  

 

1. An aircraft should not be refueled when ?
   1.   the APU is running
   2.   navigation and landing light in operation
   3.   within 10 metres (30 feet) of radar operating
2. A CO2 extinguisher is used on ?
   1.   solid, liquid, hot metal and electrical fires
   2.   solid, liquid and electrical fires
   3.   solid and liquid fires
3. Which type of extinguisher can be used for engine fire ?
   1.   CO2
   2.   BCF
   3.   Water
4. Once a person has been disconnected from the source of an electrical shock the next step should be ?
   1.   seek assistance immediately
   2.   check for breathing start AR if necessary
   3.   check for pulse start cardiac massage if necessary
5. Water marks on bearings are indications of ?
   1.   bearing been run dry
   2.   bearing insufficiently lubricated
   3.   intergranular corrosion
6. For airworthiness purposes, aircraft structural parts are graded as ?
   1.   1, 2 and 3
   2.   class A, B and C
   3.   primary, secondary and tertiary
7. Dye penetrant kits should be stored ?
   1.   in direct sunlight to keep it dry
   2.   out of sunlight in a dry place
   3.   in a dark damp cupboard
8. If the aircraft is away from base who may certify the second part of the duplicate inspection ?
   1.   any licensed engineer
   2.   a pilot with a licence for any similar aircraft type
   3.   a pilot with a licence for the aircraft type
9. What colour is used to identify a 'primary structure' when using the aircraft Maintenance Manual ?
   1.   Red
   2.   Yellow
   3.   Green
10. How many primary bonding conductors are required on an engine ?
    1.   1 only
    2.   2 on one side
    3.   1 on each side
11. A lightning strike on an aircraft would show ?
    1.   the entry and exit point
    2.   the entry point only
    3.   the exit point only
12. After a heavy landing you should check ?
    
    1.   engine module alignment
    2.   engine compressor shaft alignment
    3.   engine thrust alignment
13. Skin wrinkling on the lower surface of a wing is caused by ?
    aircraft will
    
    1.   tension
    2.   hogging
    3.   sagging
14. The angle between starts on a double start thread is ?
    1.   120 degrees
    2.   180 degrees
    3.   90 degrees
15. How do you prevent earth loops forming on screened cables?
    1.   Earth one end of the screen
    2.   Earth both ends of the screen
    3.   Do not earth the screen
16. Spot facing is done to ?
    
    1.   provide a good surface for welding
    2.   compensate for height in lieu of a spring washer
    3.   provide a flat area on a rough surface
17. A jury strut is one giving?
    1.   a part of the structure that takes only tensile loads
    2.   a temporary support
    3.   additional support to a stressed area
18. Hi-loks are installed with the ?
    
    1.   thread and shank not lubricated
    2.   shank lubricated when fitting
    3.   thread lubricated when fitting
19. What type of rivet would you use when there is access to only one side of the work ?
    
    1.   Hilok
    2.   Pop
    3.   Blind
20. The maximum temperature for Nyloc nuts is ?
    
    1.   120°C
    2.   Pop
    3.   Blind
21. What NDT would you carry out on aluminium alloy ?
    
    1.   Electroflux
    2.   Magnetic flaw
    3.   Ultrasonic
22. To check the structure of a wing, which NDT is used ?
    
    1.   Magnetic Flaw
    2.   Dye penetrant
    3.   Radiographic
23. Which of the following NDT methods requires that the surface of the test piece is cleaned down to bare metal ?
    1.   Dye-penetrant
    2.   Magnetic Particle
    3.   Eddy Current
24. The fluid used in the 'Oil and Chalk' method of non-destructive testing is a mixture of ?
    1.   lubricating oil and lard oil
    2.   lubricating oil and paraffin
    3.   lubricating oil and petrol
25. What is an isotope the power source of ?
    1.   Gamma Rays
    2.   Ultra Violet Rays
    3.   X-Rays
26. Vapour phase inhibitor should be used ?
    1.   when degreasing a component
    2.   when re-protecting after corrosion
    3.   when painting an aircraft
27. What is used on magnesium to remove corrosion ?
    1.   Strontium chromate
    2.   Selenious acid
    3.   Chromic acid / sulphuric acid solution
28. Dents in a tubular push-pull rod are not allowed ?
    1.   in the end thirds of the rod
    2.   in the middle third of the rod
    3.   anywhere on the rod
29. What is used on Magnesium to re-protect it ?
    1.   Chromic Acid
    2.   Deoxidine
    3.   Selenious Acid
30. Taper pins are used in which of the following applications ?
    1.   To take compression loads
    2.   To take shear loads
    3.   To take compression and shear loads
31. What test do you do on a bonded join?
    1.   Peel
    2.   Shear
    3.   Tension
32. De-icing fluid Type 1 is used ?
    1.   where holdover times are long
    2.   where the ambient temperature is below -10degrees Centigrade
    3.   for short holdover times
33. When an aircraft is pulled out of soft ground, the equipment should be attached to ?
    1.   the tail cone
    2.   the main gear
    3.   the nose gear
34. An aircraft should be cleared of snow ?
    1.   using air blast
    2.   using hot fluid
    3.   using cold fluid
35. When weighing an aircraft, the hydraulic system should be ?
    1.   filled to 'maximum level' mark
    2.   completely full
    3.   empty
36. When weighing an aircraft, the hydrostatic weighing units are positioned ?
    1.   either under or on top of each jack
    2.   one under each jack
    3.   one on top of each jack
37. Aircraft measurements aft of the datum are ?
    1.   Either positive or negative
    2.   Positive
    3.   Negative
38. The flux used during brazing is a mixture of water and ?
    1.   zinc chloride
    2.   hydrochloric acid
    3.   borax powder
39. Brazing material is made from ?
    1.   copper and tin and lead
    2.   copper zinc and silver
    3.   copper, silver and tin
40. The materials most commonly soldered in soft soldering are ?
    1.   aluminium and magnesium
    2.   copper zinc and silver
    3.   copper, silver and tin
41. Silver solder melts within the range ?
    1.   200°C - 400°C
    2.   600°C - 850°C
    3.   400°C - 550°C
42. A flux is used in soldering to ?
    1.   etch the metal surface for more adhesion
    2.   dissolve oxides
    3.   prevent solder spikes
43. Plumbers solder is grade ?
    1.   B
    2.   C
    3.   D
44. Before soldering stainless steel it must be ?
    1.   Pickled
    2.   Cleaned with emery cloth
    3.   Sand papered
45. In a composite repair lay-up, how much should each layer extend beyond the layer below it ?
    1.   3 - 4 inches
    2.   2 - 3 inches
    3.   1 - 2 inches
46. Marking out on stainless steel can be clarified by application of ?
    1.   copper sulphate
    2.   sal ammoniac
    3.   ammonia
47. A hole drilled at the intersection of two bends in a fabricated sheet metal component is called ?
    1.   a drain hole
    2.   a crack stopper
    3.   a relief hole
48. The formula for setback for a 90° bend is ?
    1.   (½R + T)
    2.   (R + T)
    3.   (R + ½T)
49. The skin on an aircraft is normally manufactured from ?
    1.   2024 aluminium alloy
    2.   7075 aluminium alloy
    3.   2117 aluminium alloy
50. A cable should be replaced when individual wires are worn greater than ?
    1.   40%
    2.   60%
    3.   20%
51. HTS aircraft control cables are protected from corrosion by ?
    1.   zinc plating
    2.   cadmium coating
    3.   Galvanising
52. How would you use a Pacific T5 tensiometer ?
    1.   Use correct chart and correct riser
    2.   Use a standard riser and use the chart to correct for different sized cables
    3.   Use a load meter to apply the correct load
53. Backlash is a type of wear associated with ?
    1.   bearings
    2.   rivets
    3.   gears
54. Ball and roller bearings are made from a combination of low carbon steel and a percentage of ?
    1.   Nickel
    2.   Nickel chrome
    3.   Chromium
55. The international marking for a breathing oxygen pipe line is a series of ?
    1.   Rectangles
    2.   Diamonds
    3.   Dots
56. The international marking for a fire protection pipe line is a series of ?
    1.   circles
    2.   squares
    3.   diamonds
57. When carrying out a pressure test on a pipe it should be ?
    1.   twice the working pressure for two minutes
    2.   three times the working pressure for five minutes
    3.   1.5 times the working pressure
58. The minimum rivet pitch is ?
    1.   2 * the rivet diameter
    2.   3 * the rivet diameter
    3.   2 1/2 * the rivet diameter
59. What is the approximate distance of the sphere of influence of a rivet ?
    1.   5 D
    2.   2 D
    3.   4 D
60. Avdel rivets are closed by ?
    1.   A tapered mandrel
    2.   A broaching process
    3.   A squeezing process
61. In British rivets (solid) what is the length grading unit ?
    1.   1/16
    2.   1/32
    3.   1/10
62. 1EF6B22 NMSV What does the B mean?
    1.   Circuit function
    2.   Cable number
    3.   Segment letter
63. E' on a wire, under ATA 100 is a ?
    1.   phase indication
    2.   system ID code
    3.   cable size
64. The minimum distance between electrical cable splices is ?
    1.   500 mm
    2.   12 inches
    3.   3 feet
65. The pressure of the insulation crimp jaws on the PIDG crimping tool can be changed by ?
    1.   changing the position of the pins
    2.   using different coloured crimping pliers and terminations
    3.   varying the torque applied to the handles
66. To find a high resistance or open circuit, carry out ?
    1.   a milli-volt drop test
    2.   a continuity check
    3.   a bonding check
67. How long should a fireproof cable last in a fire ?
    1.   5 minutes
    2.   50 minutes
    3.   15 minutes
68. What gauge of pin would a yellow plastic insert/extract tool be used on ?
    1.   22 - 18
    2.   16 - 14
    3.   12 - 10
69. The length of a blended repair of corrosion should be no less than ?
    1.   5 times its depth
    2.   10 times its depth
    3.   20 times its depth
70. Which of the following is checked when using a 'GO / NO -GO' gauge ?
    1.   Clearance
    2.   Tolerance
    3.   Allowance
71. The maximum permissible bow in a steel tube is ?
    1.   1 : 400
    2.   1 : 200
    3.   1 : 600
72. NTS on a drawing stands for ?
    1.   Not To Scale
    2.   Not True Scale
    3.   No Tolerance System
73. The British Standard for Engineering Drawings is ?
    1.   BS 308
    2.   BS 306
    3.   BS 307
74. The maximum value of bonding of a secondary structure is ?
    1.   1 megohm
    2.   1 ohm
    3.   1 kilohm
75. A pyrometer is a ?
    1.   thermometer for use at high temperature
    2.   pyramid shaped altimeter
    3.   foam/granule fire extinguisher
76. On a long coaxial cable how would you check for discontinuities and shorts in situ ?
    1.   Continuity tester
    2.   Safety ohmmeter
    3.   Time Domain Reflectometer
77. The pitch of a hacksaw blade is?
    1.   the number of teeth on the blade
    2.   its length
    3.   the number of teeth per inch
78. What is the clearance angle on a normal twist drill ?
    1.   59 degrees
    2.   12 degrees
    3.   130 degrees
79. A rivet shaver is used to ?
    1.   Mill the tail after setting
    2.   Mill the tail after cutting
    3.   Mill the head flush
80. What temperature should the heat gun be set for shrinking heat shrink sleeve ?
    1.   100°C above rated temperature
    2.   100°C below rated temperature
    3.   At the rated temperature

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